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ShayanJ

Gold Member

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As you know,the formula for doppler effect is:

[itex]f^{'}=\frac{v-v_{o}}{v-v_{s}}f[/itex]

relativity suggests(at least I think) that [itex]f^{'} [/itex] for [itex] v_{o}=u [/itex] and [itex] v_{s}=0[/itex] should be the same with [itex]f^{'}[/itex] for [itex]v_{o}=0 [/itex] and [itex]v_{s}=-u[/itex],otherwise,there will be a way for the listener to know that which one,sound source or listener,is moving with constant velocity.

So does relativity suggest a correction or simply I am wrong?

thanks

[itex]f^{'}=\frac{v-v_{o}}{v-v_{s}}f[/itex]

relativity suggests(at least I think) that [itex]f^{'} [/itex] for [itex] v_{o}=u [/itex] and [itex] v_{s}=0[/itex] should be the same with [itex]f^{'}[/itex] for [itex]v_{o}=0 [/itex] and [itex]v_{s}=-u[/itex],otherwise,there will be a way for the listener to know that which one,sound source or listener,is moving with constant velocity.

So does relativity suggest a correction or simply I am wrong?

thanks

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