Fourier Coefficient Amplitude: Is Infinity Possible?

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The discussion centers on the possibility of achieving an infinite value for the amplitude of a Fourier coefficient, specifically in the context of the signal sin(w0t) over the interval from 0 to T/2. The derived coefficient formula, Fn = 2/[4pi(1-n)] + 2/[4pi(1+n)], leads to an infinite result for F1. This outcome is deemed incorrect as it contradicts the principle that summing Fourier components should reconstruct the original signal, which is not achieved when infinity is involved.

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Is it possible to have an infinite value for the amplitude of a Fourier coefficient?

The signal is sin(w0t) from 0 to T/2. My resulting coefficient formula was
Fn = 2/[4pi(1-n)] + 2/[4pi(1+n)]
so for F1 i got infinity ... is this possible?
or is coefficient just wrong?
 
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This solution cannot be correct, because if you add the Fourier components up, you will get infinity multiplied by a sinusoid. Does that reconstruct the original signal in the designated range? No, and it must for such a well-behaved original signal.
 

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