Fourier Transform of Delta Function: Solving Homework Statement

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the Fourier transform of the Dirac delta function, specifically addressing the integral expression involving the exponential function and its relation to the delta function.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the validity of the integral expression and its implications, with some questioning the correctness of equating the integral to the delta function. Others suggest alternative interpretations and approaches to the problem.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights and questioning assumptions. Some guidance has been offered regarding the relationship between the Fourier transform and the delta function, though no consensus has been reached on the original statement's validity.

Contextual Notes

There are indications that the problem may involve nuances related to distribution theory and the context of the course, which may affect how the problem is approached.

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Homework Statement



Show that [tex]\int^{\infty}_{-\infty} e^{-ipt} dt = \delta(t)[/tex].

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I know that I must Fourier transform [tex]\delta(t)[/tex], but not sure how.
 
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failexam said:

Homework Statement



Show that [tex]\int^{\infty}_{-\infty} e^{-ipt} dt = \delta(t)[/tex].
You can't. It's not true. The expression on the left is a function of p only, the expression on the right is a function of t only. Now, what is the problem really?

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I know that I must Fourier transform [tex]\delta(t)[/tex], but not sure how.
 
Ok. My mistake: the delta function should be a function of p, not t.
 
failexam said:

Homework Statement



Show that [tex]\int^{\infty}_{-\infty} e^{-ipt} dt = \delta(t)[/tex].

The problem is that this isn't actually true. The integral on the left side doesn't exist.

What is true is that the constant function 1 has a Fourier transform (in the sense of distributions) equal to a Dirac delta function, possibly with a [itex]2 \pi[/itex] scale factor. However, you need quite a lot of mathematical machinery even to talk about what "in the sense of distributions" means.

If this is for an engineering course where these technicalities don't matter, then argue as follows:

1. The Fourier transform of a Dirac delta function is a constant
2. Therefore the inverse Fourier transform of a constant must be a Dirac delta function
3. Interpret the integral above as the inverse Fourier transform of a constant.

You should be able to prove 1. quite easily using the sampling/sifting property of the delta function. For 2 and 3 you will have to wave your hands a lot, but that's what engineering textbooks do in this case, too.
 
Might I suggest simply placing the delta function in place of f(x) in the formula for the Fourier Transform?
 

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