naspek
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hey there.. i really don't know how to start answering this question.. can someone please guide me to solve this question..
The discussion revolves around the application of Fourier transforms to solve a differential equation involving second derivatives and a function. Participants are exploring the steps necessary to apply Fourier transforms to both sides of the equation and the implications of the transforms on the solution process.
Some participants have made progress in understanding the application of Fourier transforms, while others express confusion about the next steps and the nature of the general solution. There is a mix of interpretations regarding the completeness of the solution and the necessity of finding the homogeneous part of the equation.
Participants are navigating the constraints of the problem, including the requirement to find a general solution and to determine the convergence of integrals for specific functions. There is an emphasis on the need to justify the existence of solutions based on convergence tests for improper integrals.
still blur...gabbagabbahey said:Since the question tells you to use Fourier transforms, you start by taking the FT of both sides of the differential equation...
gabbagabbahey said:When you take the Fourier transform of [itex]-\frac{d^2u}{dx^2}[/itex] (That's what the [itex]F[\ldots][/itex] means) you get [itex]k^2F[/itex], or [itex]k^2\tilde{u}(k)[/itex].
This gives you an algebraic (instead of differential) equation you can solve for [itex]\tilde{u}[/itex]. To find [itex]u[/itex], you then take the inverse FT.
This is a very basic application of using FTs to solve DEs and I have a hard time believing that your textbook doesn't provide a similar example. You should really be in the habit of studying the relevant section of your text/notes before attempting homework problems that are based off of it.
naspek said:i've done the inverse..
F^-1[g^(k)] = g(x) = 1/ √2∏ ∫g^(k)e^ikx dk
........ = 1/ √2∏ ∫ 1/ (k^2 + a^2)e^ikx dk
......= √2∏ [(e^-a|x|) / 2a]
[tex] <br /> inverse both side...<br /> i get..<br /> <div class="bbImageWrapper js-lbImage" title="mathssss.jpg" data-src="https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/mathssss-jpg.133258/" data-lb-sidebar-href="" data-lb-caption-extra-html="" data-single-image="1"> <img src="https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/mathssss-jpg.133258/" data-url="" class="bbImage" data-zoom-target="1" style="" alt="mathssss.jpg" title="mathssss.jpg" width="472" height="79" loading="lazy" decoding="async" /> </div><br /> <br /> is that my general solution?[/tex]gabbagabbahey said:That looks good, now use the composition rule to take the inverse FT of [tex]\hat{u}=\hat{g}\hat{f}[/itex]...[/tex]
[tex] <br /> <blockquote data-attributes="" data-quote="gabbagabbahey" data-source="post: 2660196" class="bbCodeBlock bbCodeBlock--expandable bbCodeBlock--quote js-expandWatch"> <div class="bbCodeBlock-title"> gabbagabbahey said: </div> <div class="bbCodeBlock-content"> <div class="bbCodeBlock-expandContent js-expandContent "> Does [itex]\frac{1}{2a}\int f(x) e^{-a|x|}dx[/itex] really represent the convolution of [itex]f[/itex] and [itex]g[/itex]? </div> </div> </blockquote><br /> by convolution theorem,<br /> F^−1{F*G} = f ·g <br /> correct?<br /> so, i just substitute it..?<br /> kinda confused <img src="https://cdn.jsdelivr.net/joypixels/assets/8.0/png/unicode/64/1f615.png" class="smilie smilie--emoji" loading="lazy" width="64" height="64" alt=":confused:" title="Confused :confused:" data-smilie="5"data-shortname=":confused:" />[/tex]gabbagabbahey said:That looks good, now use the composition rule to take the inverse FT of [tex]\hat{u}=\hat{g}\hat{f}[/itex]...[/tex]
gabbagabbahey said:That's better!
However, that's just part of the general solution. You can also add any function, [itex]u_h[/itex], which satisfies the corresponding homogeneous ODE, [itex]-\frac{d^2 u_h}{dx^2}+a^2u_h=0[/itex], to the [itex]u(x)[/itex] you've found, and the result will still satisfy your ODE. So, you need to find that homogeneous solution and add it to what you've found above in order to obtain the true general solution.
gabbagabbahey said:First worry about finding the homogeneous part of the general solution. Solve the Homogeneous equation.
naspek said:is this my general solution?
[itex] y(x)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\frac{1}{a}\sqrt{\frac{\pi}{a}}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-a|x|}f(x-t)dt[/itex]
fuuhh! (just for a moment..)gabbagabbahey said:Yup!![]()
gabbagabbahey said:Are you asked to solve it? Or are you only asked to show that a solution exists? If it's the latter option, just show that the integral converges.