Friction coefficient is greater than 1 explanation

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The discussion centers on the observation of a friction coefficient greater than 1 in a lab experiment involving a wooden block and a metal table. The calculated peak static friction force was 23.285N with a normal force of 20.567N, resulting in a coefficient of friction of 1.132. Participants speculate that factors such as sticky substances or magnetic forces from the metal weight could contribute to this high coefficient. It is noted that there is no theoretical maximum for the coefficient of friction, as evidenced by real-world examples like rubber tires on concrete, which can exceed 1.7. The conversation concludes that while a coefficient of friction greater than 1 is not uncommon, extreme values would warrant further investigation.
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The data came from my lab involving friction between wooden block with metal weight on it and a metal table. The wooden block is moved from rest and the force is measured using a force meter and Logger pro.

Homework Statement



Force of peak static friction = 23.285N. Normal force is 20.567N
u=F/N=1.132

Homework Equations



Why is the coefficient of friction greater than 1? Several groups in my class also had similar results with u>1. Why is that?

My guess is that there are some very small substance or agent between the wood block and table surface that is sticky and adds to friction force, or maybe there is magnetic force because there was a metal weight put on top of the wooden block to add more mass. Are my explanations plausible? Is there a better explanation?
 
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There is nothing that says the coefficient of friction can't be greater than 1 .
 
The only real "no no" is a kinetic friction coefficient larger than that of static.

1.132 is acceptable, if it were 1.8 or something then I'd worry.
 
Ok cool. So there is no absolute max? In wikipedia it says a rubber tire on concrete has u around 1.7 so how much higher does coefficient of friction go?
 
I would think the limit would be based off the materials that exist in the universe, no mathematical limit.

For example, syrup running down a kitchen wall. That would be an enormous coefficient.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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