Friction - Influence of mass with elastic materials

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on an experiment measuring the coefficient of friction (CoF) between various floor types and metal under different weights. Results indicate that for the sport surface and floor tile, the CoF is higher with lighter weights, while it remains constant with heavier weights. The relationship may relate to Amonton's Second Law, suggesting surface deformation plays a role. However, the experimental setup lacks critical details, such as whether static or dynamic friction was measured and the uniformity of pressure across contact surfaces. To draw meaningful conclusions, controlling additional variables and refining the experimental design is essential.
YeeHaa
Messages
28
Reaction score
4
Hi,

I'm doing some research on friction, and I did some tests with 4 different types of floor.
Now the first of these four floors is a sport surface (it has a polyurethane top coat), the second one is a floor-tile (with fabric on top), the third one a piece of foam and the fourth a piece of wood.

All of these materials were tested against metal.

Now I tested every floor with 3 different weights, and took some measurements (measured the normal force and friction force).
When I look at the Coefficient of Friction, it seems that for the first two floors (sport surface and floor tile), the Coefficient of Friction is LARGER when the weight is SMALLER. As soon as I increase the weight (2nd and 3rd weight), the Coefficient of Friction stays the same (it's the same for both weights).

Could this have to do with Amonton's Second Law? Maybe less weight means the surface deformes little.. (but in my eyes this would mean that friction should be lower), and with a lot of weight more of the surface at microscopic level touches the metal?

Some numbers:
Sport surface - metal:
Weight 1: (about 9 kg): CoF = 0.27
Weight 2: (about 15 kg): CoF = 0.19 (+/-)
Weight 3: (about 25 kg): CoF = 0.19 (+/-)

Floor tile - metal (same as sport surface, guess that's coincidence)
Weight 1: (about 9 kg): CoF = 0.27
Weight 2: (about 15 kg): CoF = 0.19 (+/-)
Weight 3: (about 25 kg): CoF = 0.19 (+/-)

Foam - metal:
Weight 1: (about 9 kg): CoF = 0.42
Weight 2: (about 15 kg): CoF = 0.43 (+/-)
Weight 3: (about 25 kg): CoF = 0.41 (+/-)

Wood - metal:
Weight 1: (about 9 kg): CoF = 0.11
Weight 2: (about 15 kg): CoF = 0.12(+/-)
Weight 3: (about 25 kg): CoF = 0.11(+/-)
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Anyone?
 
You haven't given enough about the experimental setup to even speculate about the cause. Some basic missing facts are

* Were you measuring static or dynamic friction?
* What was the geometry of the moving object and how was it loaded with weights? (we don't know if the pressure between the surfaces was uniform across the whole contact area or not).
* How did you apply the force to overcome friction? (i.e. where did you apply the force to the object and were you pushing or pulling? Is it possible it was trying to tip over and "dig into" the floor before it started moving?

But there's no guarantee you will get any useful answers even with that information. The experiment is probably too uncontrolled to "explain" anything in much detail. When you say "a sports floor with a polyurethane top coat" we don't know whether it is newly laid or 10 years old, how smooth it is, how clean it is, whether it has been polished with anything that might act as a lubricant or an adhesive, etc, etc...

If you really want to figure out "exactly" what is happening, you have to control all those types of factors, and/or vary them to investigate what effect they might have.
 
Hi there, im studying nanoscience at the university in Basel. Today I looked at the topic of intertial and non-inertial reference frames and the existence of fictitious forces. I understand that you call forces real in physics if they appear in interplay. Meaning that a force is real when there is the "actio" partner to the "reactio" partner. If this condition is not satisfied the force is not real. I also understand that if you specifically look at non-inertial reference frames you can...
This has been discussed many times on PF, and will likely come up again, so the video might come handy. Previous threads: https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/is-a-treadmill-incline-just-a-marketing-gimmick.937725/ https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/work-done-running-on-an-inclined-treadmill.927825/ https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/how-do-we-calculate-the-energy-we-used-to-do-something.1052162/
I have recently been really interested in the derivation of Hamiltons Principle. On my research I found that with the term ##m \cdot \frac{d}{dt} (\frac{dr}{dt} \cdot \delta r) = 0## (1) one may derivate ##\delta \int (T - V) dt = 0## (2). The derivation itself I understood quiet good, but what I don't understand is where the equation (1) came from, because in my research it was just given and not derived from anywhere. Does anybody know where (1) comes from or why from it the...
Back
Top