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## Homework Statement

## Homework Equations

## The Attempt at a Solution

Looking at equations 17 and 18, I don't see how that follows. If you substitute infinity for x you're going to get infinity divided by some real number which is infinity

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- Thread starter g.lemaitre
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Looking at equations 17 and 18, I don't see how that follows. If you substitute infinity for x you're going to get infinity divided by some real number which is infinity

- #2

chiro

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The first result is not intuitive and it is based on what is calle the error function or erf(x). The function does converge because e^(-x) when x gets really large goes quickly to 0.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Error_function

For the second one, you need to use a substitution of u = x^2. If you have done a year of calculus, this should be straight-forward.

- #3

gabbagabbahey

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Looking at equations 17 and 18, I don't see how that follows. If you substitute infinity for x you're going to get infinity divided by some real number which is infinity

[itex]e^{- \infty}=0[/itex]

Hey g.lemaitre.

The first result is not intuitive and it is based on what is called the error function or erf(x). The function does converge because e^(-x) when x gets really large goes quickly to 0.

There is no need for the error function when evaluating the first integral, just use the fact that [itex]\int_{ - \infty }^{ \infty } f(x)dx = \int_{ - \infty }^{ \infty } f(y)dy [/itex] to calculate the square of the integral, by switching to polar coordinates.

- #4

chiro

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- #5

gabbagabbahey

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The whole point is to exploit a change of the "dummy" integration variable, to transform the problem from one of finding a one-dimensional integral, to one of finding a two-dimensional integral, as the latter turns out to be easier:

[tex] \left( \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x)dx \right)^2 = \left( \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x)dx \right)\left( \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(y)dy \right) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x)f(y)dxdy[/tex]

To see why it's easier, just switch to polar coordinates.

- #6

chiro

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The whole point is to exploit a change of the "dummy" integration variable, to transform the problem from one of finding a one-dimensional integral, to one of finding a two-dimensional integral, as the latter turns out to be easier:

[tex] \left( \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x)dx \right)^2 = \left( \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x)dx \right)\left( \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(y)dy \right) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x)f(y)dxdy[/tex]

To see why it's easier, just switch to polar coordinates.

That makes it a lot clearer. Thanks.

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