General solution to PDE: f(x-y) = g(y-x) for arbitrary functions f and g?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the general solution to the partial differential equation (PDE) ∂u/∂x + ∂u/∂y = 0, which is expressed as u(x,y) = f(x-y) or u(x,y) = g(y-x), where f and g are arbitrary functions. The equivalence of these two representations is established through the relationship f(x-y) = g(y-x) = f[-(x-y)], demonstrating that the functions can be interchanged without loss of generality. This interchangeability is rooted in the properties of functions and their arguments, specifically regarding odd and even functions.

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  • Understanding of partial differential equations (PDEs)
  • Familiarity with function properties, particularly odd and even functions
  • Knowledge of mathematical notation and function representation
  • Basic calculus concepts related to derivatives
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  • Explore the properties of odd and even functions in detail
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Students and professionals in mathematics, particularly those studying differential equations, as well as educators seeking to clarify the concepts of function equivalence in PDE solutions.

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Homework Statement


Quote:
" PDE: ∂u/∂x + ∂u/∂y = 0
The general solution is u(x,y) = f(x-y) where f is an arbitrary function.
Alternatively, we can also say that the general solution is u(x,y) = g(y-x) where g is an arbitrary function. The two answers are equivalent since u(x,y) = g(y-x) = f[-(x-y)] "


I don't see why the two different representations above [u(x,y) = f(x-y) and u(x,y) = g(y-x)] would describe exactly the SAME general solution. Why can we freely switch the order of x and y?
Also, I don't understand why u(x,y) = g(y-x) = f[-(x-y)].

Homework Equations


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The Attempt at a Solution


I was thinking of odd and even functions? But I don't think the quote is meant to restrict only to these special functions...


Thanks for any help!:smile:
 
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Maybe looking at an example will help you. Say you have the general solution f(x-y) and I claim the general solution is g(y-x). So you say, look, I can get exp(x-y) by taking f(x-y)=exp(x-y).

I say, so can I. I will take g(y-x) = exp(-(y-x))

It's because f(x-y) = f(-(y-x)) which I can call g(y-x). Clear as mud?
 

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