Well, I have a big problem that my current density is horrible.
##\vec j=C(\frac{a^2-x^2+y^2}{a^4+2a^2(-x^2+y^2)+(x^2+y^2)^2},-2\frac{xy}{a^4+2a^2(-x^2+y^2)+(x^2+y^2)^2})##
So if I write the integral in post #5 in Mathematica, I can't get an analytic solution, because it is absolutely horrible.
But than I found another equation saying that ##\nabla ^2\vec B=-\mu _0 \vec j##, which tells me that ##(\nabla ^2 B_x,\nabla ^2 B_y,\nabla ^2 B_z)=-\mu_0 (j_x,j_y,0)##.
I don't want to solve these Poisson's equations, because I can imagine how horrible this will be, BUT the third component should be rather easy.
For the third component I have a Laplace equation ##\nabla ^2 B_z=0## and Green's function for 3D space should do the job perfectly. Let's say that we have solved this equation, and let's assume for a moment that now we know ##B_z(x,y,z)##.
Using the equation I get from ##\nabla \times \vec B=\mu_0 \vec j## I can also get this: ##\frac{\partial }{\partial z}B_x-\frac{\partial }{\partial x}B_z=\mu_0g(x,y)##.
In this last equation, only ##B_x## is unknown. Therefore
##B_x=\int \frac{\partial }{\partial x}B_3(x,y,z)dz+\int\mu_0g(x,y)dz +C(x,y)##
NOW THE PROBLEM OF THIS IDEA:
I would expect for magnetic field to go towards zero if ##x,y,z->\infty##. And it works perfectly for ##x,y##. BUT the last integral is ##\int\mu_0g(x,y)dz=g(x,y)z##
Obviously if I send ##z## to infinity, ##B_x## will never go towards zero. And I know that integral also comes with a constant, but this constant is a function of ##C(x,y)## and not ##C(x,y,z)##.
So now I am completely lost.
I guess I will just have to convince Mathematica to somehow integrate the Biot-Savart numerically. I don't really know how to do it, but it is the last idea I have left.