Is Infinity Divided by Infinity Equal to 1?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Einstein's Cat
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Infinity Value
AI Thread Summary
Infinity divided by infinity is not equal to 1; it is an indeterminate form that can yield various results depending on the context of limits in calculus. Division by infinity is not defined, similar to how division by zero is undefined. When examining limits, expressions involving infinity can result in any number, including zero or infinity itself. The limit process is essential to determine the value of such expressions, as they cannot be treated as constants. Therefore, without applying limits, the concept of dividing infinity by infinity lacks meaning.
Einstein's Cat
Messages
182
Reaction score
2
Is infinity divided by infinity equal to 1? 6 divided by 6 is equal to 1 however as infinity resembles 0 in the sense that 0 dived by 0 is equal to 0, I am uncertain whether infinity divided by infinity would equal 1 or instead, infinity.
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org
Usually you can't do things like multiply or divide by infinity. It is not defined. Similarly, 0 divided by 0 is not 0. It is not defined.

What you can sometimes do is examine a limit. So ##\lim_{x->0} \frac{\sin(x)}{x}## is defined, and is 1. So in this sense, in this case, dividing a zero by a zero gives you 1. But only as the limit.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/L'Hôpital's_rule
 
The uncertainties of the type ##\infty \cdot 0##, ##\infty/\infty## or ##0/0## acquire a definite value only as a limit, you can't simply operate with ##\infty## as being a number. So, unless we can go through the limit process it makes no sense to say that some uncertainty is equal to some value.
 
You are considering infinity as a constant number
Depends on the infinities you are working with quotient of two infinities can be zero or infinity too
 
Cheers for all your help
 
Einstein's Cat said:
Is infinity divided by infinity equal to 1? 6 divided by 6 is equal to 1 however as infinity resembles 0 in the sense that 0 dived by 0 is equal to 0, I am uncertain whether infinity divided by infinity would equal 1 or instead, infinity.
You have managed to pack a number of things that aren't true into a small number of words.

Is infinity divided by infinity equal to 1?
No.
The indeterminate form ##[\frac{\infty}{\infty}]## shows up in calculus as limits that can literally come out to any number, as well as negative or positive infinity. Here are some simple examples:
1. ##\lim_{x \to \infty}\frac{x^2}{x} = \infty##
2. ##\lim_{x \to \infty}\frac{x}{x^3} = 0##
3. ##\lim_{x \to \infty}\frac{x^2 + 3}{3x^2 - x + 7} = \frac 1 3##

as infinity resembles 0
No, not at all.

0 dived divided by 0 is equal to 0
No.
Division by 0 is not defined. The indeterminate form ##[\frac 0 0]## also shows up in calculus limits, and can come out to any number. Some examples of this:
1. ##\lim_{x \to 0}\frac{x^2}{x} = 0##
2. ##\lim_{x \to 0}\frac{x}{x^2}## does not exist
3. ##\lim_{x \to 0}\frac{x}{x^3} = \infty##
4. ##\lim_{x \to 0}\frac{\sin(2x)}{x} = 2##
 
Seemingly by some mathematical coincidence, a hexagon of sides 2,2,7,7, 11, and 11 can be inscribed in a circle of radius 7. The other day I saw a math problem on line, which they said came from a Polish Olympiad, where you compute the length x of the 3rd side which is the same as the radius, so that the sides of length 2,x, and 11 are inscribed on the arc of a semi-circle. The law of cosines applied twice gives the answer for x of exactly 7, but the arithmetic is so complex that the...
Thread 'Unit Circle Double Angle Derivations'
Here I made a terrible mistake of assuming this to be an equilateral triangle and set 2sinx=1 => x=pi/6. Although this did derive the double angle formulas it also led into a terrible mess trying to find all the combinations of sides. I must have been tired and just assumed 6x=180 and 2sinx=1. By that time, I was so mindset that I nearly scolded a person for even saying 90-x. I wonder if this is a case of biased observation that seeks to dis credit me like Jesus of Nazareth since in reality...
Fermat's Last Theorem has long been one of the most famous mathematical problems, and is now one of the most famous theorems. It simply states that the equation $$ a^n+b^n=c^n $$ has no solutions with positive integers if ##n>2.## It was named after Pierre de Fermat (1607-1665). The problem itself stems from the book Arithmetica by Diophantus of Alexandria. It gained popularity because Fermat noted in his copy "Cubum autem in duos cubos, aut quadratoquadratum in duos quadratoquadratos, et...

Similar threads

Replies
40
Views
6K
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
31
Views
2K
Replies
9
Views
2K
Replies
22
Views
3K
Replies
15
Views
4K
Replies
9
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
2K
Back
Top