Hamiltonian of the Quantum Harmonic Oscillator-Eigenfunction & Eigenvalue

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around demonstrating that a given function is an eigenfunction of the Quantum Harmonic Oscillator Hamiltonian and finding its corresponding eigenvalue. The specific function under consideration is u1(q) = A*q*exp((-q²)/2), and the Hamiltonian is defined as H_{QHO} = (1/2)ħω((-d²)/(dq²) + q²).

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss substituting the function into the Hamiltonian to verify if it is an eigenfunction. There are attempts to compute the second derivative and evaluate the resulting expressions. Questions arise regarding the correctness of calculations and the nature of the eigenvalue.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing feedback on calculations and clarifying the nature of eigenvalues. Some participants suggest that the eigenvalue should be a constant, while others are working through the implications of their calculations.

Contextual Notes

There are indications of potential miscalculations in derivatives and confusion regarding the dependence of the eigenvalue on the variable q. Participants are encouraged to clarify their steps and reasoning throughout the discussion.

Calcifur
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Homework Statement


Show that the equation below is an eigenfunction for the Quantum Harmonic Oscillator Hamiltonian and find its corresponding eigenvalue.


Homework Equations


u1(q)=A*q*exp((-q[itex]^{2}[/itex])/2)


The Attempt at a Solution


Ok, so I know that the Quantum Harmonic Oscillator Hamiltonian (H[itex]_{QHO}[/itex]) is :
(H[itex]_{QHO}[/itex])=[itex]\frac{1}{2}[/itex][itex]\hbar[/itex]ω(((-d^2)/(dq^2))+q^2) and I know that:
(H[itex]_{QHO}[/itex])u1(q)=Eu1(q)

but how do I show that it's an eigenfunction? Simply subbing it into the eqn doesn't appear to help.

Many thanks in advance.
 
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Calcifur said:
Simply subbing it into the eqn doesn't appear to help.
It should. Either that or you need to solve the differential equation, which is a much harder task.

Show us what you got when you plugged u1 into the equation.
 
vela said:
Show us what you got when you plugged u1 into the equation.

Ok, so here goes:

HQHO*U1(q)=E*U1(q)

[itex]\frac{1}{2}[/itex][itex]\hbar[/itex]ω([itex]\frac{-d^{2}}{dq^{2}}[/itex]+q[itex]^{2}[/itex]).A.q exp([itex]\frac{-q^{2}}{2}[/itex])=E*U1(q)

[itex]\frac{A}{2}[/itex][itex]\hbar[/itex]ω(-[itex]\frac{d}{dq}[/itex][itex]\frac{d}{dq}[/itex](q.exp([itex]\frac{-q^{2}}{2}[/itex]))+(q[itex]^{3}[/itex])exp([itex]\frac{-q^{2}}{2}[/itex]))=E*U1(q)

which eventually comes to:

(q[itex]^{3}[/itex]+q[itex]^{2}[/itex]-2q-1)exp([itex]\frac{-q^{2}}{2}[/itex])[itex]\frac{A}{2}[/itex][itex]\hbar[/itex]ω=E*U1(q)

So does this mean that : (q[itex]^{3}[/itex])+q[itex]^{2}[/itex]-2q-1) is the corresponding eigenvalue?

Is my method correct?

Many thanks.
 
You must have calculated the second derivative incorrectly. You should get
$$u_1''(q) = (q^3-3q)e^{-q^2/q}.$$
 
vela said:
You must have calculated the second derivative incorrectly.

Thanks, my mistake. So I now have:

[itex]\frac{\hbarω}{2}[/itex]A.exp([itex]\frac{-q^{2}}{2}[/itex])(-q[itex]^{3}[/itex]-q[itex]^{2}[/itex]+3q)=E.U[itex]_{1}[/itex](q).

So is -q[itex]^{3}[/itex]-q[itex]^{2}[/itex]+3q the corresponding eigenvalue? Or can I simplify even further?

Many thanks.
 
That's still not correct. The eigenvalue is a constant. It can't depend on q.
 
I think I've figured it out now. Many thanks Vela
 

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