eljose
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let,s suppose we have the Hamiltonian H=T+V but V is V=F(z) being z=a+ix then would the energies be real?..thanks.
eljose said:let,s suppose we have the Hamiltonian H=T+V but V is V=F(z) being z=a+ix then would the energies be real?..thanks.
Maybe and maybe not. For examle; if F(z) = a2 + x2 then the energy must be real since F(z) is real. But for the life of me I can't see how this would correspond to something in the real world. This would imply that there are complex observables. However the Hamiltonian (in position space and you've indicated) must correspond to an operator which has real eigenvalues. If it doesn't then it violates one of the axioms of QM since the Hamiltonian would then not be Hermitian.eljose said:let,s suppose we have the Hamiltonian H=T+V but V is V=F(z) being z=a+ix then would the energies be real?..thanks.
Let me get back on this. Someone explained what was meant here but I need a solid reference to go through, e.g. Cohen-Tannoudji, Sakuri, etc.QMrocks said:we use complex potential to represent system that leaks to the outside, its called 'coupling function'.
Its part of the axioms for one thing since an axiom is stated in terms of a Hamiltonian.kamalmgu said:what are the advantages of hamiltonian mechanisms over lagrangian mechanics while dealing with quantum field theory
eljose said:let,s suppose we have the Hamiltonian H=T+V but V is V=F(z) being z=a+ix then would the energies be real?..thanks.
Hi, let's restrict to one dimension, then basically you have to solve the problemeljose said:my question is could an energy be real?..if this happened with E_{n}=E*_{n} ten we would have with b(x) the complex part of the potential:
\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}dx(|\phi_{n}|^2)b(x)=0
but if the potential is complex then b is different from 0.