- #1
brushman
- 113
- 1
I have read the proofs and understand them. But I don't get how it is possible that this diverges.
We know
[tex] \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} 1/n = 0[/tex]
So, given the harmonic series, aren't you eventually adding 0? I know we are not, but why not?
Apparently, the sequence is not approaching 0 'fast enough', but what determines how fast you need to approach 0 for a series to converge? And why is this an issue when we're looking at the infinite term?
We know
[tex] \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} 1/n = 0[/tex]
So, given the harmonic series, aren't you eventually adding 0? I know we are not, but why not?
Apparently, the sequence is not approaching 0 'fast enough', but what determines how fast you need to approach 0 for a series to converge? And why is this an issue when we're looking at the infinite term?