- #1
pivoxa15
- 2,255
- 1
Why does the set have to be (bounded) and closed in order for there being finitely many open subsets that can completely cover it?
My question is concerned with the closed aspect (I know why it has to be bounded). So why can't a bounded and open set be able to be covered by finitely many open subsets?
My question is concerned with the closed aspect (I know why it has to be bounded). So why can't a bounded and open set be able to be covered by finitely many open subsets?