Help please with this integral involving an inverse trig function

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the integral \(\int_0^{2\pi} \frac{dx}{3 + \cos(x)}\), which involves inverse trigonometric functions and substitutions. Participants explore various methods and substitutions to simplify the integral.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss attempts including multiplying by \(\frac{3 - \cos(x)}{3 - \cos(x)}\) and using the Weierstrass substitution \(t = \tan\left(\frac{x}{2}\right)\). Concerns are raised about discontinuities at \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) when applying these substitutions. Others suggest reducing the integral by examining the graph of \(\cos(x)\) to avoid complications.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of different substitution methods, with some participants expressing satisfaction with certain approaches while others continue to question the validity of their methods. The discussion reflects a mix of attempts and insights without reaching a definitive conclusion.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the challenges posed by discontinuities in the substitution methods and the requirement to adhere to homework guidelines regarding the posting of attempts. The integral's properties and behavior around specific points are also under consideration.

madafo3435
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No Effort - Member warned that some effort must be shown
Homework Statement
I have problems evaluating this integral because every substitution I use turns out to have a discontinuous derivative, or the composition is not well defined.

I write the integral below
Relevant Equations
I can't advance much in the integral because of what I mention below
## \int_0 ^ {2 \pi} \frac {dx} {3 + cos (x)} ##

las únicas formas que probé fueron, multiplicar por ## \frac{3-cos (x)}{3-cos (x)} ## pero no me gusta esto porque obtengo una expresión muy complicada. También recurrí a la sustitución ## t = tan (\frac {x} {2}) ## que me gusta bastante, pero encuentro que esta función es discontinua en ## \frac {\pi } {2} ## así que no he podido escribir mucho. También probé la sustitución ## cos (x) = \frac {1-t ^ 2} {1 + t ^ 2} ##, pero obtengo el mismo problema con ## \frac{\pi }{2} ##
 
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I'd like to see which ones you tried. PF guidelines require you post your attempt(s)
 
Use Weierstrass, ##t = \tan{\frac{x}{2}}##. It is quite a useful substitution for fractions with stubborn trig functions.
 
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BvU said:
I'd like to see which ones you tried. PF guidelines require you post your attempt(s)
sorry, it was my mistake not to indicate my attempts. However, the only ways I tried were, multiply by ##\frac {3-cos(x)}{3-cos(x)}## but I don't like this because I get a very complicated expression. I also resorted to the substitution recommended by etotheipi, using the substitution ##t=tan(\frac {x}{2})## which I quite like, but I find that this function is discontinuous in ## \frac {\pi}{2}## so I haven't been able to write much. Also i tried the substitution ##cos(x)=\frac {1-t^2}{1+t^2} ##, but i get the same problem whit ##\frac {\pi}{2} ##
 
etotheipi said:
Use Weierstrass, ##t = \tan{\frac{x}{2}}##. It is quite a useful substitution for fractions with stubborn trig functions.
i tried that substitution, but i have problem whit ##\frac {\pi}{2} ## because this function it not continuous at this point.
 
You want to use it anyway :smile: maybe it doesn't crash...
What is ##dx## in terms of ##t## and ##dt## ?
 
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BvU said:
You want to use it anyway :smile: maybe it doesn't crash...
What is ##dx## in terms of ##t## and ##dt## ?
i find this: ##dx=2cos^2(\frac{x}{2})dt ##. But, I understand that any substitution must be to belong to ##C^1## or is it not necessary?
 
BvU said:
You want to use it anyway :smile: maybe it doesn't crash...
What is ##dx## in terms of ##t## and ##dt## ?
please observe this attempted solution. By applying the weistrass substitution carelessly, I obtain that the value of the proposed integral gives 0, which is contradictory, since this integral exists and must be positive.
 

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madafo3435 said:
i find this: ##dx=2cos^2(\frac{x}{2})dt ##. But, I understand that any substitution must be to belong to ##C^1## or is it not necessary?
As a first step, I looked at the graph of ##\cos x## and reduced the integral to:
$$\int_0^{2\pi} \frac {dx} {3 + cos x} = 2\int_0^{\pi/2} \frac 1 {3 + \cos x} + 2\int_0^{\pi/2} \frac 1 {3 - \cos x} dx = 12\int_0^{\pi/2} \frac {dx} {9 - \cos^2 x}$$
That gets rid of all the problems with discontinuities.

Now, think ##\sec^2x## and ##\tan^2 x## perhaps.
 
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  • #10
madafo3435 said:
please observe this attempted solution. By applying the weistrass substitution carelessly, I obtain that the value of the proposed integral gives 0, which is contradictory, since this integral exists and must be positive.

I haven't lookd carefully at this, but doesn't
$$\int_\pi ^ {2\pi} \frac{dx}{3 + \cos x} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \tan^{-1} u|_{-\infty}^0 = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \left[0 - \left( -\frac{\pi}{2} \right)\right]$$
 
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  • #11
George Jones said:
I haven't lookd carefully at this, but doesn't
$$\int_\pi ^ {2\pi} \frac{dx}{3 + \cos x} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \tan^{-1} u|_{-\infty}^0 = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \left[0 - \left( -\frac{\pi}{2} \right)\right]$$
you're right, the integration limits confused me. If so, I am satisfied with a solution. thank you
 
  • #12
PeroK said:
As a first step, I looked at the graph of ##\cos x## and reduced the integral to:
$$\int_0^{2\pi} \frac {dx} {3 + cos x} = 2\int_0^{\pi/2} \frac 1 {3 + \cos x} + 2\int_0^{\pi/2} \frac 1 {3 - \cos x} dx = 12\int_0^{\pi/2} \frac {dx} {9 - \cos^2 x}$$
That gets rid of all the problems with discontinuities.

Now, think ##\sec^2x## and ##\tan^2 x## perhaps.
interesting your idea, I like it a lot, I will try to solve it by this method. thanks for your idea
 
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  • #13
Thank you all for your support, I am satisfied!
 
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  • #14
One way to avoid this is to note (by, e.g., looking at the graph) that the integrand is even about ##\pi##. It is easily shown algebraically that the integrand evaluated at ##\pi - x## is the same as the integrand evaluated at ##\pi + x##. Consequently, ##\int_0^{2\pi} = 2 \int_0^{\pi}##.
 
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  • #15
George Jones said:
One way to avoid this is to note (by, e.g., looking at the graph) that the integrand is even about ##\pi##. It is easily shown algebraically that the integrand evaluated at ##\pi - x## is the same as the integrand evaluated at ##\pi + x##. Consequently, ##\int_0^{2\pi} = 2 \int_0^{\pi}##.
I will keep it in mind, thank you very much for your consideration
 

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