Help with Exercise 3(c) in Cox et al's Projective Algebraic Geometry

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on Exercise 3(c) from Chapter 8 of "Ideals, Varieties and Algorithms" by David Cox, John Little, and Donal O'Shea, specifically regarding the use of homogeneous coordinates in projective geometry. The participant, Peter, seeks clarification on the validity of manipulating homogeneous coordinates, particularly when multiplying by the variable \( (1 - t^2) \). The consensus confirms that as long as \( t \neq \pm 1 \), this manipulation is permissible, as it adheres to the rules of projective space where points are equivalent if they can be expressed as scalar multiples of one another.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of homogeneous coordinates in projective geometry
  • Familiarity with the concepts of equivalence classes in projective space
  • Basic knowledge of algebraic manipulation involving variables
  • Reading comprehension of algebraic geometry texts, specifically Cox et al.'s work
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of projective spaces and their applications in algebraic geometry
  • Learn about the equivalence of points in projective geometry and the role of non-zero scalars
  • Explore additional exercises in "Ideals, Varieties and Algorithms" to reinforce understanding
  • Review the implications of homogeneous coordinates in computational algebraic geometry
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Students and educators in algebraic geometry, particularly those studying projective geometry and its applications, as well as anyone seeking to deepen their understanding of the concepts presented in Cox et al.'s textbook.

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I am reading the undergraduate introduction to algebraic geometry entitled "Ideals, Varieties and Algorithms: An introduction to Computational Algebraic Geometry and Commutative Algebra (Third Edition) by David Cox, John Little and Donal O'Shea ... ...

I am currently focused on Chapter 8, Section 1: The Projective Plane ... ... and need help getting started with Exercise 3(c) ... Exercise 3 in Section 8.1 reads as follows:
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I would very much appreciate someone helping me to start Exercise 3(c) ... ... My thoughts so far are as follows ... I would be grateful if someone could critique my analysis ...
I am assuming that a point $$(x, y)$$ in $$\mathbb{R}^2$$ can be written as $$(x, y, 1)$$ in $$\mathbb{P}^2 ( \mathbb{R} )$$ ... as homogeneous coordinates ...So $$( \frac{1+t^2}{1 - t^2} , \frac{2t}{1 - t^2} )$$ in $$\mathbb{R}^2$$ becomes $$( \frac{1+t^2}{1 - t^2} , \frac{2t}{1 - t^2} , 1 )$$ in $$\mathbb{P}^2 ( \mathbb{R} )$$Now we can multiply or divide through homogeneous coordinates by a constant without altering the coordinate ... BUT ... what gives us the right to multiply by the variable $$(1-t^2 )$$ ... ... in order to get $$( \frac{1+t^2}{1 - t^2} , \frac{2t}{1 - t^2} , 1 ) = (1 + t^2, 2t, 1 - t^2 )$$Then ... I assume that $$t = \pm 1$$ ... since it leads to $$z = 0$$ in the homogeneous coordinates ... gives points at infinity ... BUT ... is that correct? ... AND ... is there any more that can be deduced ... ... ?hope that someone can help ...

Peter======================================================================To give readers of the above post some idea of the context of the exercise and also the notation I am providing some relevant text from Cox et al ... ... as follows:
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Last edited:
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Hi Peter,

This is correct

Peter said:
My thoughts so far are as follows ... I would be grateful if someone could critique my analysis ...
I am assuming that a point $$(x, y)$$ in $$\mathbb{R}^2$$ can be written as $$(x, y, 1)$$ in $$\mathbb{P}^2 ( \mathbb{R} )$$ ... as homogeneous coordinates ...So $$( \frac{1+t^2}{1 - t^2} , \frac{2t}{1 - t^2} )$$ in $$\mathbb{R}^2$$ becomes $$( \frac{1+t^2}{1 - t^2} , \frac{2t}{1 - t^2} , 1 )$$ in $$\mathbb{P}^2 ( \mathbb{R} )$$
The next question is a good one and highlights what can certainly be a confusing element of dealing with projective space

Peter said:
Now we can multiply or divide through homogeneous coordinates by a constant without altering the coordinate ... BUT ... what gives us the right to multiply by the variable $$(1-t^2 )$$ ... ... in order to get $$( \frac{1+t^2}{1 - t^2} , \frac{2t}{1 - t^2} , 1 ) = (1 + t^2, 2t, 1 - t^2 )$$

The rule is that you're allowed to multiply by any non-zero number. As the authors say, two points $(x_{1},y_{1},z_{1})$ and $(x_{2},y_{2},z_{2})$ are equivalent provided there is some non-zero $\lambda$ such that $(x_{1},y_{1},z_{1})=\lambda (x_{2},y_{2},z_{2})$; i.e. $\lambda$ is a variable that can take on any non-zero value and, in doing so, completely assembles all of the elements in the equivalence class of the point $(x_{1},y_{1},z_{1})$. So, as long as $t\neq\pm 1,$ $(1-t^2)\neq 0$ and so can be used as a "lambda" value.
 
Last edited:
GJA said:
Hi Peter,

This is correct

The next question is a good one and highlights what can certainly be a confusing element of dealing with projective space
The rule is that you're allowed to multiply by any non-zero number. As the authors say, two points $(x_{1},y_{1},z_{1})$ and $(x_{2},y_{2},z_{2})$ are equivalent provided there is some non-zero $\lambda$ such that $(x_{1},y_{1},z_{1})=\lambda (x_{2},y_{2},z_{2})$; i.e. $\lambda$ is a variable that can take on any non-zero value and, in doing so, completely assembles all of the elements in the equivalence class of the point $(x_{1},y_{1},z_{1})$. So, as long as $t\neq\pm 1,$ $(1-t^2)\neq 0$ and so can be used as a "lambda" value.
THanks GJA ... appreciate the help ...

Peter
 

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