alancj
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Help with Proof and Mathematical Induction problem
Here is my problem I need to solve:
"Prove that the statement: \frac {1}{5} + \frac{1}{5^2} + \frac{1}{5^3} +... + \frac{1}{5^n} = \frac{1}{4}(1-\frac{1}{5^n}) is true for all positive integers n. Write your proof in the space below."
I don’t know where to start. The sub-chapter in my textbook that talks about it doesn’t make any sense. Here are the two pages relevant to this problem.
My first question is why is n redefined as k? It seems pointless. Why not just say “show the statement is true for the next integer n+1”?
Second question: When n=1 you just replace a 1 for all the spots where an n appears in the equation; so why on Earth when you make it n=k+1 don’t you just put in a 2 wherever an n is (or k) instead of actually inserting the whole k+1? It seems like they make it more complicated then it needs to be.
Third question: What the heck is with the x + x + x + … + x= part? I don’t understand what it is supposed to mean or how it is relevant to the problem given in the example (or in my problem I need to answer).
Fourth question: why, in example 1, do they add a (k+1)^2 to each side of the problem? Isn’t the whole point to just solve the equation with more than one integer to prove that it is true for all integers? I don’t get it!
Fifth question: I don’t understand the conclusion of example 1. They just say “This proves that… for all positive integers n.” How does it prove it? They didn’t even use real numbers? It is just a bunch of gibberish!
Thoroughly confused.
Maybe if I can understand the example that they give me I can have a fighting chance at answering this exam question (which I need to show my work for).
Thanks,
Alan
Here is my problem I need to solve:
"Prove that the statement: \frac {1}{5} + \frac{1}{5^2} + \frac{1}{5^3} +... + \frac{1}{5^n} = \frac{1}{4}(1-\frac{1}{5^n}) is true for all positive integers n. Write your proof in the space below."
I don’t know where to start. The sub-chapter in my textbook that talks about it doesn’t make any sense. Here are the two pages relevant to this problem.
My first question is why is n redefined as k? It seems pointless. Why not just say “show the statement is true for the next integer n+1”?
Second question: When n=1 you just replace a 1 for all the spots where an n appears in the equation; so why on Earth when you make it n=k+1 don’t you just put in a 2 wherever an n is (or k) instead of actually inserting the whole k+1? It seems like they make it more complicated then it needs to be.
Third question: What the heck is with the x + x + x + … + x= part? I don’t understand what it is supposed to mean or how it is relevant to the problem given in the example (or in my problem I need to answer).
Fourth question: why, in example 1, do they add a (k+1)^2 to each side of the problem? Isn’t the whole point to just solve the equation with more than one integer to prove that it is true for all integers? I don’t get it!
Fifth question: I don’t understand the conclusion of example 1. They just say “This proves that… for all positive integers n.” How does it prove it? They didn’t even use real numbers? It is just a bunch of gibberish!
Thoroughly confused.
Maybe if I can understand the example that they give me I can have a fighting chance at answering this exam question (which I need to show my work for).
Thanks,
Alan
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