Help with simplifying boolean expression

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on simplifying the boolean expression (A+B)&(C+D) + (A+B)&(C+D)' + C. Participants confirm that the expression can be simplified using the distributive law, resulting in (A+B). The simplification process involves recognizing that (C+D) + (C+D)' equals TRUE, allowing the expression to reduce to (A+B). The original poster expresses gratitude for the clarification on the simplification method. The thread highlights the importance of understanding boolean algebra laws for effective simplification.
Extreme112
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< Mentor Note -- thread moved to HH from the technical math forums, so no HH Template is shown >[/color]

(A+B)&(C+D) + (A+B)&(C+D)' + C
(A+B)&(C+D) + (A+B)&(C'&D') + C by deMorgans
(A+B)&[(C+D)+(C'&D')] + C by Distributive

I'm just wondering if I did anything wrong in this simplification or if it can be simplified any further.
 
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Extreme112 said:
(A+B)&(C+D) + (A+B)&(C+D)' + C
(A+B)&(C+D) + (A+B)&(C'&D') + C by deMorgans
(A+B)&[(C+D)+(C'&D')] + C by Distributive

I'm just wondering if I did anything wrong in this simplification or if it can be simplified any further.
Well, use the distributive law on the first part of first line - (A+B)&(C+D) + (A+B)&(C+D)' = (A+B)&((C+D) + (C+D)') = (A+B) (since P + P' = TRUE).
 
Svein said:
Well, use the distributive law on the first part of first line - (A+B)&(C+D) + (A+B)&(C+D)' = (A+B)&((C+D) + (C+D)') = (A+B) (since P + P' = TRUE).

Thanks, I didn't even see that.
 
I tried to combine those 2 formulas but it didn't work. I tried using another case where there are 2 red balls and 2 blue balls only so when combining the formula I got ##\frac{(4-1)!}{2!2!}=\frac{3}{2}## which does not make sense. Is there any formula to calculate cyclic permutation of identical objects or I have to do it by listing all the possibilities? Thanks
Since ##px^9+q## is the factor, then ##x^9=\frac{-q}{p}## will be one of the roots. Let ##f(x)=27x^{18}+bx^9+70##, then: $$27\left(\frac{-q}{p}\right)^2+b\left(\frac{-q}{p}\right)+70=0$$ $$b=27 \frac{q}{p}+70 \frac{p}{q}$$ $$b=\frac{27q^2+70p^2}{pq}$$ From this expression, it looks like there is no greatest value of ##b## because increasing the value of ##p## and ##q## will also increase the value of ##b##. How to find the greatest value of ##b##? Thanks
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