How are sets defined in mathematics?

  • Thread starter Thread starter phoenixthoth
  • Start date Start date
phoenixthoth
Messages
1,600
Reaction score
2
first one seems ridiculously basic...the other one less so.

1. What is a set?

If I ask what is a vector, I can say it is something in a vector space. If I ask what is a group, I can see if it meets some simple criteria. The axioms of set theory say certain things are sets but is there something that could be turned into a definition for a set of the form, "x is a set iff... ." For groups G, there is a way to finish that line "G is a group iff... ." Same for vectors. What about sets? (Please no circular definitions like a set is a collection. I'm after the actual definition from math.)


2. Is there a way to turn the question of axiom independence into any other type of problem? I don't know much about it but does forcing do that? There must be some way to recontextualize axioms as generators of a group or something with the rules of deductive calculus being the group operations, or something, isn't there? Not saying it would be a group but some algebraic structure...
 
Physics news on Phys.org
x is a set (in some model) if and only if it satisfies the axioms of being a set. Some thing is not a vector until you specify a vector space and then verify it is an element of that space. Precisely the same holds for sets.
 
The algebra of a set is the one with no function symbols. And behold: sets are in one-to-one correspondence with set-theoretic models of this algebra.

The theory of a set is the one with no function or relation symbols. And behold: sets are in one-to-one correspondence with set-theoretic models of this theory.

Surely this was not helpful, though! I agree with matt -- you first need to define a set theory, and then your sets are the 'elements' of that.


It turns out that bounded Zermelo set theories correspond with well-pointed topoi; it's even a 1-1 correspondence if you make add an additional axiom that's a consequence of replacement. Maybe an elementary version of the well-pointed topos axioms will be more to your liking?


Forcing can be used to prove axiom independence; I think it's basic idea is to adjoin an element satisfying the properties you want (e.g. N < X < PN), and then construct the set-theory generated by your original set-theory and this new element.
 
Hi all, I've been a roulette player for more than 10 years (although I took time off here and there) and it's only now that I'm trying to understand the physics of the game. Basically my strategy in roulette is to divide the wheel roughly into two halves (let's call them A and B). My theory is that in roulette there will invariably be variance. In other words, if A comes up 5 times in a row, B will be due to come up soon. However I have been proven wrong many times, and I have seen some...
Thread 'Detail of Diagonalization Lemma'
The following is more or less taken from page 6 of C. Smorynski's "Self-Reference and Modal Logic". (Springer, 1985) (I couldn't get raised brackets to indicate codification (Gödel numbering), so I use a box. The overline is assigning a name. The detail I would like clarification on is in the second step in the last line, where we have an m-overlined, and we substitute the expression for m. Are we saying that the name of a coded term is the same as the coded term? Thanks in advance.
Back
Top