How can I prove this from Roger Penrose's Road to Reality?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving the properties of the function h(x), defined as h(x)=0 if x ≤ 0 and h(x)=e^(-1/x) if x > 0, as presented in Roger Penrose's "Road to Reality." Participants confirm that h(x) is continuous and of class C∞ over the real numbers ℝ, meaning it possesses an infinite number of derivatives. The proof involves demonstrating that h is C^1 and then applying mathematical induction to establish that h is C^n for all n ≥ 1.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of continuity and differentiability in real analysis
  • Familiarity with the concept of class C∞ functions
  • Knowledge of Taylor series and their applications
  • Basic principles of mathematical induction
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  • Study the properties of C∞ functions in real analysis
  • Learn how to apply Taylor series for function approximation
  • Review mathematical induction techniques in proofs
  • Explore limits and continuity proofs in calculus
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Mathematics students, educators, and anyone interested in advanced calculus and real analysis, particularly those studying properties of functions and proofs in mathematical analysis.

Etienne
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Hi, I've been reading Roger Penrose's Road to Reality during my free time, and I am trying to do all the proofs I possibly can, although I am quickly reaching my limit.

Would somebody help me prove this?

h(x)=0 if x ≤ 0
h(x) = e-1/x if x > 0

Thank you in advance :)
 
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Hi,

Read what you wrote and then maybe understand that there is no question in your post. Prove what ?
 
This is an incomplete definition of h(x). You cannot prove a definition.
You can prove that h is continuous by looking at a specific limit.
 
I'm so sorry, I see I only wrote the definition of the function.

It is said that the function h(x) is of class C in the domain. What I understand is that it must have an infinite number of derivatives, and that at the slope must be 0 at the origin.

However, I haven't been able to prove this and apparently neither could a friend. It is probably much easier than I think, but I haven't been able to do it.

Could I approach this with a Taylor series? Logarithms? I apologize for the anterior and thanks again.
 
Prove that it is ##C^1## and then use induction to prove that it is ##C^n## for all ##n\geq 1##.
 
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