How can the Extended Euclidean Algorithm be simplified for faster computation?

SirEllwood
Messages
1
Reaction score
0
Hi all, ok so below is an example of the Extended Euclidean Algorithm, and i understand the first part perfectly to find the g.c.d.

701 − 2 × 322 = 57,
322 − 5 × 57 = 37,
57 − 37 = 20,
37 − 20 = 17,
20 − 17 = 3,
17 − 5 × 3 = 2,
3 − 2 = 1,

and

1 = 3 − 2
= 6 × 3 − 17
= 6 × 20 − 7 × 17
= 13 × 20 − 7 × 37
= 13 × 57 − 20 × 37
= 113 × 57 − 20 × 322
= 113 × 701 − 246 × 322.

Now on the second part, it is finding the equation of ax +by = 1, which i am generally having to find so i can compute the inverse of a(modb). They have managed to do this in 7 steps. It always takes me like more than twice as many in a really longwinded fashion. Has the example below missed out some steps for the sake of conciseness? I just don't understand how they are doing what they are doing.

For example I would have said

1= 3- 2
1 = (20-17) - (17 - (5x3))
1 = ((57-37) - (37-20)) - ((37-20) - 5(20-17))
etc.

Which is obviously far more longwinded, but equally as methodical. I want to know how to do this more concisely so in an exam it would be far less confusing and time consuming.

Thank you!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Hi, "Sir", :P
yes, the second part looks abridged. This is how it would work:

You use the lines in the first part in reverse order, bottom to top. The bottom line says
1 = 3 - 2
(which is a Diophantine equation equal to 1, as required) so you just copy it. Now, each successive line of the first part gives an equation for a number, that you can substitute in the second part. The next one (bottom to top) on the first part says
2 = 17 - 5 x 3
and, substituting in your current Diophantine equation for 1, you get
1 = 3 - 17 + 5 x 3 (and, grouping the terms in 3 together,)
= 6 x 3 - 17
The next equation will give you an equation for 3 in terms of 17 and something else, so you'll be able to substitute, and then group the terms in 17 together. See how it works?

Hope this helps--
 
##\textbf{Exercise 10}:## I came across the following solution online: Questions: 1. When the author states in "that ring (not sure if he is referring to ##R## or ##R/\mathfrak{p}##, but I am guessing the later) ##x_n x_{n+1}=0## for all odd $n$ and ##x_{n+1}## is invertible, so that ##x_n=0##" 2. How does ##x_nx_{n+1}=0## implies that ##x_{n+1}## is invertible and ##x_n=0##. I mean if the quotient ring ##R/\mathfrak{p}## is an integral domain, and ##x_{n+1}## is invertible then...
The following are taken from the two sources, 1) from this online page and the book An Introduction to Module Theory by: Ibrahim Assem, Flavio U. Coelho. In the Abelian Categories chapter in the module theory text on page 157, right after presenting IV.2.21 Definition, the authors states "Image and coimage may or may not exist, but if they do, then they are unique up to isomorphism (because so are kernels and cokernels). Also in the reference url page above, the authors present two...
When decomposing a representation ##\rho## of a finite group ##G## into irreducible representations, we can find the number of times the representation contains a particular irrep ##\rho_0## through the character inner product $$ \langle \chi, \chi_0\rangle = \frac{1}{|G|} \sum_{g\in G} \chi(g) \chi_0(g)^*$$ where ##\chi## and ##\chi_0## are the characters of ##\rho## and ##\rho_0##, respectively. Since all group elements in the same conjugacy class have the same characters, this may be...
Back
Top