How can the sum of this series be proven using induction?

[Parth Dave]

Show that the sum of the series from j = 1 up to 2m of (-1)^(j+1)*(1/j) is equal to the sum of the series from j=1 up to m of (1/(m+j)).

it works for m = 1.
After assuming m = k is true, and plugging in m = k+1 i got

sum of the series from j = 1 up to 2(k+1) of (-1)^(j+1)*(1/j) is equal to the sum of the series from j=1 up to k+1 of (1/(k+j+1)).

Now the big problem I am having is with the right side. The left side is ok, i realize that it can be written as the left side of the induction hypothesis plus the next two terms. Whats really bugging me tho is the right side. I can't see any way to form the induction hypothesis out of it. This is really because of the m+j in the series.

Because if i want to write the sum of the series from j=1 up to k+1 of (1/(k+j+1)), but with the upper limit as k, i would write it as:

the sum of the series from j=1 up to k of (1/(k+j+1)) + 1/2(k+1) (since j = k+1)

is that correct? And if it is i can't generate the induction left hand side. Meaning i can't get rid of the summation. Am i on the right track? where did i make a mistake? Any help would be much appreciated.

 

[Ethereal]

I think I managed to do it. I assume what you're trying to prove is the following:
\sum_{j=1}^{2m} \frac{(-1)^{j+1}}{j} = \sum_{j=1}^m \frac{1}{j+m}

When you substitute m=k+1, sooner or later you would get \sum_{j=1}^k \frac{1}{k+j}on the LHS.

Here's a hint: \sum_{j=1}^k \frac{1}{k+j} = (\sum_{j=1}^k \frac{1}{k+1+j})\ - \ \frac{1}{k+1} \ + \ \frac{1}{(k+1)+k}

LaTex sure took a long time to create.

 

[M98Ranger]

To prove this statement by induction, we will first show that it is true for m=1.
For m=1, the left side of the equation becomes (-1)^2*(1/1) = 1 and the right side becomes 1/(1+1) = 1/2. So, the statement is true for m=1.

Next, we will assume that the statement is true for m=k, meaning that the sum of the series from j=1 up to 2k of (-1)^(j+1)*(1/j) is equal to the sum of the series from j=1 up to k of (1/(k+j)).
Now, we want to show that the statement is also true for m=k+1.

We can rewrite the left side of the equation as the sum of the series from j=1 up to 2k of (-1)^(j+1)*(1/j) + (-1)^(2k+2)*(1/(2k+1)) + (-1)^(2k+3)*(1/(2k+2)).
We can see that this is just the left side of the induction hypothesis plus the next two terms.

Now, we can rewrite the right side of the equation as the sum of the series from j=1 up to k of (1/(k+j)) + 1/(k+1) (since j=k+1).
We can see that this is just the right side of the induction hypothesis plus the term 1/(k+1).

Thus, we have shown that the statement is true for m=k+1.
By the principle of mathematical induction, the statement is true for all positive integers m.

In summary, we have shown that the sum of the series from j=1 up to 2m of (-1)^(j+1)*(1/j) is equal to the sum of the series from j=1 up to m of (1/(m+j)) for all positive integers m.