How can we simplify the normalization equation for a sine wave function?

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The discussion centers on simplifying the normalization equation for the sine wave function f = sin(πx/L) over the interval [0, L]. The initial calculation involves integrating N² sin²(πx/L), resulting in N²(L/2)sin(L/2), which the poster believes should equal one. However, a participant points out that the inclusion of sin(L/2) is incorrect, prompting the original poster to acknowledge the mistake. The conversation highlights the importance of verifying calculations in normalization processes. The forum serves as a supportive space for resolving such mathematical queries.
Activeuser
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Hello, please help me with normalization problem..

f is sin(Pi x/L) between 0, L

first we use normalization formula and integrate N^2 Sin^2(pi x/L) to get N^2( L/2) Sin L/2 which equals to one ... this is my solution

in the textbook his result is N^2 (L/2)

My question is how he get rid of Sin L/2.. please explain
 
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Activeuser said:
first we use normalization formula and integrate N^2 Sin^2(pi x/L) to get N^2( L/2) Sin L/2 which equals to one ... this is my solution
Hello, and welcome to PF!

Sin L/2 is incorrect. Check your work.
 
ooh:sorry:. Thank you. I did it.
This confusion leads me to know and register at this great form.
I am happy to be here:smile:
 
Great! Hope you enjoy the forum.
 
Thank you.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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