How Do Spherical Harmonic Tensors Behave Under the Laplacian Operator?

latentcorpse
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Let C_{i_1i_2 \dots i_l} be a symmetric traceless tensor of rank l. Let \hat{x}= \frac{x}{|x|} be a three dimensional unit vector on the unit sphere. Define a tangential derivative such that \nabla_i \hat{x_j} = \delta_{ij} - \hat{x_i} \hat{x_j}. For the spherical harmonic Y_l(\hat{x})=C_{i_1i_2 \dots i_l} \hat{x_{i_1}} \hat{x_{i_2}} \dots \hat{x_{i_l}} show that

\nabla^2 Y_l( \hat{x} ) = -l(l+1) Y_l( \hat{x})

I'm not really getting anywhere here as I can't see how the \nabla^2 moves through the tensor so that i can act it on the x's.
 
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Try this:
\nabla^2 Y_l(\hat{x}) = \delta^{mn}\nabla_m[\nabla_n Y_l(\hat{x})]
I'm not sure if you can consider the tensor coefficients C_{i_1 i_2\cdots i_l} to be position-independent, i.e. to have the property
\nabla_m C_{i_1 i_2\cdots i_l} = 0
 


diazona said:
Try this:
\nabla^2 Y_l(\hat{x}) = \delta^{mn}\nabla_m[\nabla_n Y_l(\hat{x})]
I'm not sure if you can consider the tensor coefficients C_{i_1 i_2\cdots i_l} to be position-independent, i.e. to have the property
\nabla_m C_{i_1 i_2\cdots i_l} = 0

They're spherical harmonics, so the C_{i_1 i_2\cdots i_l} are indeed constants. The coefficients for low orders can be deduced from the table at http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Table_of_spherical_harmonics
 
To solve this, I first used the units to work out that a= m* a/m, i.e. t=z/λ. This would allow you to determine the time duration within an interval section by section and then add this to the previous ones to obtain the age of the respective layer. However, this would require a constant thickness per year for each interval. However, since this is most likely not the case, my next consideration was that the age must be the integral of a 1/λ(z) function, which I cannot model.

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