How Does Causality Emerge in Quantum Field Theory Expressions?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on understanding how causality is embedded in quantum field theory expressions, particularly through the expression <0|φ(x)φ(y)|0>, which indicates the creation of one-particle states at positions x and y. Participants clarify that the survival of <0|ap aq†|0> implies that only certain particle states contribute, leading to integrals over all possible momenta. Additionally, the expression <0|φ(x)=<x| is discussed as a projection of the single-particle state onto the position basis, although confusion arises regarding its interpretation and the nature of the basis vectors involved. The conversation emphasizes the mathematical relationships in quantum mechanics and their intuitive implications for causality and state representation. Overall, the thread highlights the complexities of interpreting quantum field theory expressions and the nuances of their mathematical foundations.
Neitrino
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Gentlemen,
Could you help me please, I am sure it is not even worthy of your attention, but anyway...

In Peskin, Schroeder - from expresion &lt;0|\phi(x)\phi(y)|0&gt; survives &lt;0|a_p a_q^\dag|0&gt; so it creates one-particle state |q> at position y and another one-particle state | p> at postion x. But how do I intuitively see that causuality/propagation of particle between these positions is imbeded and considered in that expresion?

And another question &lt;0|\phi(x)|p&gt;=...e^ipx formula 2.42

it's said that it is a position-space representation of the state |p> just as in NR QM <x|p>, so it should be projection of single-particle |p> state onto the <x| baisis and what vectors/basis that state is projected on? where is that <x| vectors in 2.42

P.S. I am sure i missed something very simple in understanding of above and that's why posting such "silly" questions

Thanks in advance
 
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(1) I think the expresion &lt;0|\phi(x)\phi(y)|0&gt;
survives &lt;0|a_p a_q^\dag|0&gt; means:
&lt;0|a_p^\dag a_q^\dag|0&gt;=0 and &lt;0|a_p a_q|0&gt;=0;
only &lt;0|a_p a_q^\dag|0&gt; survives, of course p and q are arbitary,
not single p and single q. the final result will be an integral over all possible p or q.

(2) &lt;0|\phi(x)=&lt;x|, this is a simple calculation.
there is no special physical significance here, the author, I guess, just mentioned NR
case to make the formula be easily understood.
 
snooper007 said:
(2) &lt;0|\phi(x)=&lt;x|, this is a simple calculation.

Dear Snooper007 thks for ur reply..
but &lt;0|\phi(x) it is a complex conjugation of \phi(x)|0&gt; (as u mentioned in QM forum). So &lt;0|\phi(x)=\int{\frac{d^3 p}{(2\pi)^3}\frac{1}{2E_p}e^{ipx}&lt;p|

but with &lt;0|\phi(x)=&lt;x| I am confused <-How/why it's that?
 
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