How Does Group Theory Explain the Equation (a^(-1)*ba)^n = a^(-1)*b^n*a?

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Homework Statement



For any elements a and b from a group and any integer n, prove that (a^(-1)*ba)^n = a^(-1) b^n *a


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The Attempt at a Solution



by law of exponents and the distributive property(a^-1 *b*a)= a^-n *b^n *a^n=a^(-n +n)*b^n = a^0 * b^n = b^n

Likewise, a^(-1) * b^n * a^1 = a^(-1+1)* b^n

since (a^-1 *b *a)^n =b^n and since a^-1 * b^n *a^1 = b^n , then (a^-1 * b*a) = (a^-1 *b^n *a^1)
 
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Groups are not commutative. You can't just say, as you have, that (xy)^n=x^ny^n, that is just not true. So what is the definition of x^n? It is x*x*x*..*x with n x's. End of story.
 
\left(a^{-1}ba\right)^{n}= \left(a^{-1}ba\right) \left(a^{-1}ba\right) \left(a^{-1}ba\right)...

Now use associativity.
 
dextercioby said:
\left(a^{-1}ba\right)^{n}= \left(a^{-1}ba\right) \left(a^{-1}ba\right) \left(a^{-1}ba\right)...

Now use associativity.

Assiociative property: ((a^-1 *b)*a)^n= (a^-1 *(b*a))^n : that would be how you would apply the assiociative property to this problem.

I know the assiociative property is one of the 3 properties, along with the identity and inverse property to prove that a particular non-empty set is a group.

But how is the assiociative property related to what you wrote : ((a^-1 *b)*a)^n=(a^-1 *b)*a)*(a^-1 *b)*a)*(a^-1 *b)*a)
 
Associativity means that one does not need brackets.
 
matt grime said:
Associativity means that one does not need brackets.
What do you mean associativity does not need brackets?

Assiociativity is based on this fundamental operation: (ab)c=a(bc) for all a,b, c in G
 
Benzoate said:
What do you mean associativity does not need brackets?

Assiociativity is based on this fundamental operation: (ab)c=a(bc) for all a,b, c in G

Yes, and there is no doubt at all that matt knows this. Let's take it one step at a time. Can you calculate/simplify (a-1ba)2=(a-1ba)(a-1ba)?

Hint: apply the associative property.
 
d_leet said:
Yes, and there is no doubt at all that matt knows this. Let's take it one step at a time. Can you calculate/simplify (a-1ba)2=(a-1ba)(a-1ba)?

Hint: apply the associative property.

yes.
 
Benzoate said:
yes.

Ok... And what is it?
 
  • #10
d_leet said:
Ok... And what is it?

Why do I need to simplify (a-1ba)^2=(a-1ba)^1 *(a-1ba)^1 again when you already simplfied the equation for me? I thought you wanted me to regconize whether the particular equation you wrote was simplified or not.
 
  • #11
Benzoate said:
Why do I need to simplify (a-1ba)^2=(a-1ba)^1 *(a-1ba)^1 again when you already simplfied the equation for me?

I don't recall doing this, I asked you if you could simplify it yourself and you replied yes, so what did you come up with?

The point of that rather simple question was that if you cannot do that, there is little hope of solving the more general problem in your first post.

So shall we try this again if we have (a-1ba)2=(a-1ba)(a-1ba)

Can you simplify this? Your first post says that (a-1ba)n=(a-1bna) for all natural n. So in other words (a-1ba)2 should equal (a-1b2a).

Now can you show this?
 
  • #12
Benzoate said:
What do you mean associativity does not need brackets?

Assiociativity is based on this fundamental operation: (ab)c=a(bc) for all a,b, c in G

That is not an operation. Now, it is an identity, which means we can unambiguously write abc, and we know it has a unique meaning.

Perhaps you would prefer it, and find it helpful, if I pointed out that associatvity means we can insert and move brackets around at will in an expression. Now, please, simplify

aba^{-1}aba^{-1}

Notice how I'm omitting the brackets?
 
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