How Does Injectivity of a Homomorphism Affect Its Kernel and Image?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of group homomorphisms, specifically focusing on the injectivity of a homomorphism and its implications for the kernel and image. The original poster presents a problem involving a homomorphism ##\theta : G \mapsto H## and seeks to establish the relationship between injectivity and the kernel being trivial, as well as the isomorphism between the group and its image.

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to demonstrate the equivalence of injectivity and a trivial kernel, exploring implications through specific elements and their mappings. Some participants question the reasoning behind certain steps, particularly regarding the use of inverses and the definition of a new homomorphism from ##G## to ##\text{Im} \theta##.

Discussion Status

Participants have provided feedback on the original poster's attempts, with some affirming the correctness of certain proofs while others seek clarification on specific definitions and implications. There is an ongoing exploration of the properties of the defined homomorphism ##\phi## and its relationship to ##\theta##, with no explicit consensus reached yet.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of the first isomorphism theorem and the necessity to show that the mapping remains a homomorphism when restricted to the image. Participants are also navigating the nuances of definitions and the implications of injectivity in the context of group theory.

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Homework Statement


Let ##\theta : G \mapsto H## be a group homomorphism.
A) Show that ##\theta## is injective ##\iff## ##\text{Ker}\theta = \left\{e\right\}##

B) If ##\theta## is injective, show that ##G \cong I am \theta ≤ H##.

The Attempt at a Solution



A)The right implication is fine. Briefly, if ##\theta## is a homomorphism, then the identity in G is always sent to the identity in H. Since ##\theta## is injective, no other element maps there. I am not so sure about the left implication, but what I tried was:
Consider ##\theta (g_1) = h_1## and ##\theta (g_2) = h_1. ## Want to show that ##g_1 = g_2## using the fact that ##\text{Ker}\theta = ##identity.
Then ##\theta (g_1 e_G) = \theta (g_1) e_H = h_1 = \theta(g_2)e_H## so ##\theta(g_1) = \theta(g_2) (1)##. But I realize this is a trivial result. From here I want to show that ##g_1 = g_2##. We were given a hint to use inverses more explicitly, but I can't see it right now.

B)I think I have this one, I just would like someone to check over it to make sure I haven't overlooked anything. So prove that ##G \cong I am \theta##

This means ##G## is isomorphic to ##Im \theta## and so we have a bijective homomorphism. It is given that ##\theta## is injective, so we need only show surjectivity.
But simply, by definition of ##Im \theta##, it is surjective.

Now prove ##Im \theta \leq H##, so use test for subgroup.
i)Non empty: we are dealing with a homomorphism, so the identity in g is always mapped to identity in H, so the image is never nonempty.

ii)Closure: Let ##h_1, h_2 \in I am \theta##. For some ##g_1, g_2 \in G, g_1 \neq g_2##, we have ##\theta(g_1) = h_1 ## and ##\theta(g_2) = h_2##. Then ##\theta(g_1)\theta(g_2) = h_1 h_2 = \theta(g_1 g_2). ## We found such an element that maps to ##h_1 h_2## so closure is satisfied.

iii) Let ##\ell = h_1 h_2 \Rightarrow \ell h_2^{-1} = h_1 \Rightarrow \ell h_2^{-1} h_1^{-1} = e \Rightarrow \ell (h_1 h_2)^{-1} = e.## So we found an element such that when it is smashed with another element we get ##e \in I am \theta##, so closed under inverse.

Is this okay? If so, it is really just the left implication of A) that I need a hint for.

Many thanks
 
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For 1, what happens to the element g_1 g_2^{-1} under the homomorphism?

For 2, your proof is correct though you already know e is in the image as identity is preserved under the morphism. This is also a special case of the first isomorphism theorem.
 
Hi Kreizhn,

So applying ##g_1 g_2^{-1}## to the homomorphism, I get $$\theta(g_1 g_2^{-1}) = \theta(g_1) \theta(g_2^{-1}) = \theta(g_1) (\theta (g_2))^{-1} = h_1 (h_1)^{-1} = e_H,$$ where I defined ##\theta(g_1) = \theta(g_2) = h_1##. Since we know only the identity in G, ##e_G## maps to ##e_H##, I conclude that ##g_1 = g_2##. Okay?
 
Looks good.
 
Kreizhn said:
Looks good.
Thanks for the help.
 
Apparently I had to show that there existed a homormorphism between G and Imθ.
 
I don't follow: \theta is your homomorphism, that is what you showed.
 
I don't think I showed ##\theta## was a homormorphism - it is given that ##θ## is a homormorphism. The comment on my work is that '##θ : G →H ## is a homormorphism, need to show homormorphism ##G →\operatorname{Im} \theta##'
 
CAF123 said:
I don't think I showed ##\theta## was a homormorphism - it is given that ##θ## is a homormorphism. The comment on my work is that '##θ : G →H ## is a homormorphism, need to show homormorphism ##G →\operatorname{Im} \theta##'
There's not much to show. We can certainly define ##\phi : G \rightarrow im(\theta)## by ##\phi(g) = \theta(g)##. Then ##\phi## is a homomorphism because ##\phi(ab) = \theta(ab) = \theta(a)\theta(b) = \phi(a)\phi(b)##. The only distinction between ##\phi## and ##\theta## is that ##\phi## is surjective even if ##\theta## is not. Note that ##\phi## is injective if and only if ##\theta## is.
 
  • #10
jbunniii said:
The only distinction between ##\phi## and ##\theta## is that ##\phi## is surjective even if ##\theta## is not. Note that ##\phi## is injective if and only if ##\theta## is.

Could you elaborate further how you made these deducements?
 
  • #11
CAF123 said:
Could you elaborate further how you made these deducements?
OK. I defined ##\phi : G \rightarrow im(\theta)## by ##\phi(g) = \theta(g)##. If ##a \in im(\theta)## then by definition of the image, there is some ##g \in G## such that ##\theta(g) = a##. But this means ##\phi(g) = a##. This shows that ##\phi## is surjective.

Suppose ##\theta## is injective. If ##\phi(g) = \phi(h)## then ##\theta(g) = \theta(h)##, so ##g = h## because of the injectivity of ##\theta##. This shows that ##\phi## is injective.

Conversely, suppose ##\phi## is injective. If ##\theta(g) = \theta(h)##, then ##\phi(g) = \phi(h)##, and this implies ##g = h## because of the injectivity of ##\phi##. This shows that ##\theta## is injective.
 
  • #12
Makes sense, thanks. But why did you define ##\phi(g) = \theta(g)##?Is this arbitrary?
 
  • #13
CAF123 said:
Makes sense, thanks. But why did you define ##\phi(g) = \theta(g)##?Is this arbitrary?
What other candidate is available if we want a homomorphism between ##G## and ##im(\theta)##? We are not given any information about ##G## or ##H##, other than the fact that ##\theta : G \rightarrow H## is a homomorphism. Therefore we have nothing to work with except ##\theta##. There may well be other homomorphisms from ##G## onto ##im(G)##, but no information is provided about any of them.
 
  • #14
I think the gist of it is this:

Technically, when you restrict morphisms they could stop being morphisms. When you restrict the domain it may fail to be a subgroup so the map, while still defined, could fail to be a homomorphism. Conversely, if you restrict the codomain, the map may not have a well-defined target and so fail to be a mapping.

In this instance, we are restricting the codomain so that \theta: G \to \text{im}\theta. The only possible pitfall is that your target not be well-defined, for which it suffices to check that \text{im}\theta \subseteq \text{im}\theta. But this is a tautology, so there's nothing to show.

It seems incredibly pedantic, but perhaps if this is a "first course" in abstract algebra, the TA is just making sure you "dot your i's and cross your t's."
 

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