vorcil
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question:
Consider the gaussian distribution:
p(x) = Ae^(-\lambda (x-a)^2)
(a) use the equation, 1={\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}} p(x)dx
(b) find <x>, <x^2> and \sigma
------------------------------------------------------
a) if i take (x-a) to be u,
1=\int_{-\infty}^\infty Ae^(-\lambda(x-a)^2)dx
=
\int_{-\infty}^\infty Ae^(-\lambda(u)^2)dx (not sure if this is right, when i substitute in u, is dx, supposed to be replaced by du?
why? because of the integration limits? idk understand why please explain,
- after i get told why that occurs,
i need help integrating this
{\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}} Ae^(-\lambda(u)^2)du
Consider the gaussian distribution:
p(x) = Ae^(-\lambda (x-a)^2)
(a) use the equation, 1={\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}} p(x)dx
(b) find <x>, <x^2> and \sigma
------------------------------------------------------
a) if i take (x-a) to be u,
1=\int_{-\infty}^\infty Ae^(-\lambda(x-a)^2)dx
=
\int_{-\infty}^\infty Ae^(-\lambda(u)^2)dx (not sure if this is right, when i substitute in u, is dx, supposed to be replaced by du?
why? because of the integration limits? idk understand why please explain,
- after i get told why that occurs,
i need help integrating this
{\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}} Ae^(-\lambda(u)^2)du