How Does the Relativistic Doppler Shift Equation Simplify for Low Velocities?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on simplifying the relativistic Doppler shift equation for low velocities, specifically showing that the equation f' = [√(1+(v/c))/√(1-(v/c))] * f reduces to Δf/f = -v/c when v is much less than c. Participants explore various expansions and approximations, including dropping higher-order terms, to derive the relationship. One method involves expanding the square roots and manipulating the resulting equations, leading to expressions that approach the desired result. There is debate about the legitimacy of dropping certain terms and whether the approximations hold true under the given conditions. Ultimately, the conversation highlights the complexities of mathematical simplifications in the context of relativistic physics.
gnome
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relativistic doppler shift

I'm trying to show that this equation for the doppler shift for light:
f' = [√(1+(v/c))/√(1-(v/c))] * f
reduces to
&Delta;f/f = -v/c for v<<c

So I expanded (1+v/c)^(1/2) = 1 + v/(2c)
and (1-v/c)^(1/2) = 1 - v/(2c)
dropping higher order terms on the assumption that they are negligible.
Now I have
f' = [(1+v/(2c))/(1-(v/(2c))] * f
&Delta;f = f' - f = f * [(1+v/(2c))/(1-(v/(2c)) - 1]
&Delta;f/f = (2c + v)/(2c - v)

That doesn't look like -v/c.

On the other hand, if I multiply the original equation by &radic;(1-(v/c))/&radic;(1-(v/c)) I get
f' = [&radic;(1-(v^2/c^2))/(1-(v/c))] * f
and then expand &radic;(1-(v^2/c^2)) = 1-v^2/(2c^2)
then
f' = [(1-v^2/(2c^2))/(1-(v/c))] * f
&Delta;f/f = (1-v^2/(2c^2))/(1-(v/c)) - 1
= (2c^2 - v^2)/(2c^2 - 2cv) - 1
= (2cv - v^2)/(2c^2 - 2cv)
= v(2c - v)/(c(2c - 2v))

Close but no cigar.

Or, can I just claim that (2c-v)/(2c-2v) &sim; 1?

(The minus sign can be attributed to how we define &Delta;f.)
 
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Starting here:

Originally posted by gnome

&Delta;f = f' - f = f * [(1+v/(2c))/(1-(v/(2c)) - 1]
&Delta;f/f = (2c + v)/(2c - v)

Can't you say:

\frac{\Delta f}{f} = \frac{1+\frac{v}{2c}}{1-\frac{v}{2c}} - 1
\frac{\Delta f}{f} = \frac{2\frac{v}{2c}}{1-\frac{v}{2c}}

and since v<<c, 1>>v/2c --> 1-v/2c ~ 1, and then you've proven it.

Or can you expand again at that point, so that: 1/(1+x) ~ 1 - x (for x close to zero), then:


\frac{\Delta f}{f} = \frac{v}{c}(1-\frac{v}{2c})

drop the second order terms and you've got the answer.

I'm not sure if that's all right, but that'd be my guess; hope it helps.
 
I guess that's it. I'm always uncertain as to which terms I can legitimately "drop", but I don't see any other argument that works here.

Thanks, James.
 
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