How Does U-Substitution Simplify Integration Problems?

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U-substitution simplifies integration by allowing the substitution of a function and its derivative, making integrals easier to solve. The process involves identifying a suitable substitution, such as u = 1 + x², and finding the corresponding dx in terms of du. This often leads to the cancellation of variables, simplifying the integral to a more manageable form. Understanding when to use this method comes with practice and familiarity with integrals that fit the substitution pattern. Ultimately, experience helps in recognizing effective substitutions for various integrals.
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Homework Statement


67ph6q.jpg


Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution



I don't understand what exactly is going on here. They let u=(1+x^{2}), so that leaves them with this:
\int \frac{x}{u^{2}}dx

The derivative of (1+x^{2}) is simply 2x. And so:
\frac{du}{dx} = 2x \rightarrow du = 2xdx \rightarrow dx=\frac{du}{2x}

So now, substituting in my new dx, I get:

\int \frac{x}{u^{2}2x}du

So, is that x simply canceling out here? Is that the idea?
Which leaves me with:
\int \frac{u^{-2}}{2}du
-\frac{1}{2u}
Re-substituting u I get:
-\frac{1}{2(x^{2}+1)} + C

With that being said, how do you know that the x will cancel? How are you even supposed to know that this approach will work? Is there some sort of proof to this idea, my book does not have it.
 
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QuarkCharmer said:
So, is that x simply canceling out here? Is that the idea?

Yes that is the basic idea of it.

QuarkCharmer said:
With that being said, how do you know that the x will cancel? How are you even supposed to know that this approach will work? Is there some sort of proof to this idea, my book does not have it.

We know it will work since d/dx(x2+1) = 2x, meaning that in the integrand the x in the numerator will cancel out.
 
QuarkCharmer said:
So, is that x simply canceling out here?

That's pretty much the idea. Another way to look at it is:

u=(1+x^{2}) , du= 2x dx , so \frac{1}{2}du=xdx.

Now substituting in, you have \int \frac{1}{u^{2}} \frac{1}{2}du = ...
 
Last edited:
QuarkCharmer said:

Homework Statement


67ph6q.jpg


Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution



I don't understand what exactly is going on here. They let u=(1+x^{2}), so that leaves them with this:
\int \frac{x}{u^{2}}dx

The derivative of (1+x^{2}) is simply 2x. And so:
\frac{du}{dx} = 2x \rightarrow du = 2xdx \rightarrow dx=\frac{du}{2x}

So now, substituting in my new dx, I get:

\int \frac{x}{u^{2}2x}du

So, is that x simply canceling out here? Is that the idea?
Which leaves me with:
\int \frac{u^{-2}}{2}du
-\frac{1}{2u}
Re-substituting u I get:
-\frac{1}{2(x^{2}+1)} + C

Yes, that's it. You know that u=x^2+1, so deriving both sides gives you du=2xdx, thus dx=\frac{du}{2x}. And then you can substitute it in the integral.

With that being said, how do you know that the x will cancel? How are you even supposed to know that this approach will work? Is there some sort of proof to this idea, my book does not have it.
Basically, you don't know if the approach will work, you'll only know it by trying. You'll need some experience with these kind of thingies. If you've solved lots of integrals then you know immediately a few substitutions that you could try. But you'll still need to try them to see if they will really work out.

The same thing happens with the integral

\int{x\sqrt{x^2+1}dx}

when confronted with a root, I always try the substitution u=\sqrt{x^2+1} first. Sometimes it works, sometimes it doesn't. With this substitution, you get u^2=x^2+1 and by deriving both sides:

2udu=2xdx

thus dx=\frac{udu}{x}

and you see that the x will cancel again. Note, if there wasn't an x before the root, then it wouldn't have worked. And if there wasn't an x in the numerator of your integral, then it wouldn't have worked...
 
gb7nash,

du= 2x dx , so \frac{1}{2}du=dx
Where did the x go in this example?

du=2xdx

\frac{1}{2}du=xdx

\frac{1}{2x}du=dx ?
 
QuarkCharmer said:
gb7nash,

du= 2x dx , so \frac{1}{2}du=dx
Where did the x go in this example?

Typo. Thanks.
 
Ah okay. The way you phrased it, I thought you were doing something different than me.

Thanks for all of the help everyone.
 
Personally after finiding du I would solve for xdx instead of for dx in this case, since that is what you have in the integral. Obvioulsy you can take the couple extra steps to see that it cancels out, but I don't see the reason.

At the point where you have 1/2du = xdx, I would simply make the substitution back into the integral, rather than making the extra steps that give you the same result.
 
Related to this question:

\int sec^{3}(x)tan(x) dx

u=sec(x), and so, \frac{du}{dx}=sec(x)tan(x), and dx=\frac{du}{sec(x)tan(x)}

\int u^{3}tan(x) dx
\int \frac{u^{3}tan(x)}{sec(x)tan(x)} du
\int \frac{u^{3}}{sec(x)} du

I have no idea what to do with this one? Can I put my u=sec back in and try again now?

Edit: Na, that just gets me back to where I started.

Oh wait, because u is equal to sec, can I just call that \frac{u^{3}}{u} ?
 
  • #10
QuarkCharmer said:
I have no idea what to do with this one? Can I put my u=sec back in and try again now?

Edit: Na, that just gets me back to where I started.

You'd get

\int \frac{u^3}{u} du = \int u^2 du
 
  • #11
Yeah! I see what you did there (above edit). Fantastic stuff. I haven't had to actually think about math for a while, this is easily the funnest section I have done to date.
 
  • #12
QuarkCharmer said:
How are you even supposed to know that this approach will work?
One thing you should always check is if the integral is of or can be tweaked into the form
\int [f(x)]^n f'(x)\, dx
If it is, the substitution u=f(x) will work, and the answer will be
\int [f(x)]^n f&#039;(x)\, dx = \left\{<br /> \begin{array}{lc}<br /> \frac{[f(x)]^{n+1}}{n+1}+c &amp; n\ne -1 \\<br /> \\<br /> \log \lvert f(x) \rvert+c &amp; n=-1<br /> \end{array}<br /> \right.
In your problem, you'd guess f(x)=x2+1 so that f'(x)=2x, and it indeed works out:
\int \frac{x}{(x^2+1)^2}\,dx = \frac{1}{2}\int (x^2+1)^{-2} (2x) \,dx
If you can differentiate in your head, you can often an the integral fits the pattern by inspection. It's a neat trick to know mostly so you can screw with your peers when you look at an integral and say, "Oh, the answer is obviously..." and then write the answer down without showing any work. They'll be in awe of your mathematical prowess. :wink:
 
  • #13
For your latest problem, you'd say
\int \sec^3 x\tan x \,dx = \int (\sec x)^2 (\sec x \tan x)\,dx = \cdots
 
  • #14
vela said:
For your latest problem, you'd say
\int \sec^3 x\tan x \,dx = \int (\sec x)^2 (\sec x \tan x)\,dx = \cdots

I came up with:

\frac{sec^3(x)}{3}+C


@Vela,
That is basically looking to see if it is a backwards chain rule correct?
 
  • #15
\int \frac{x^{2}}{\sqrt(1-x)}dx

I let u=\sqrt(1-x), and dx = \frac{2\sqrt(1-x)du}{-1}

So I came to this guy here:

\int \frac{2x^{2}\sqrt(1-x)}{-u}du

But now if I resubstitute the \sqrt(1-x) back in for u to cancel, I am still stuck with that x, and du at the end.
 
  • #16
QuarkCharmer said:
\int \frac{x^{2}}{\sqrt(1-x)}dx

I let u=\sqrt(1-x), and dx = \frac{2\sqrt(1-x)du}{-1}

So I came to this guy here:

\int \frac{2x^{2}\sqrt(1-x)}{-u}du

It's easier not to work with the square roots:

IF u=\sqrt{1-x}, then u^2=1-x, thus 2udu=-dx.

Furthermore, x=1-u^2, thus x^2=(1-u^2)^2.

Now you can substitute everything in the integral.
 
  • #17
Oh, I didn't even think about squaring both sides of the u-sub equation!
Would that work with other things too? For instance, suppose I say that u=MNOP, and then in the integral I see that there is a M/Mu, Could I multiply both sides by M, to get Mu = M^2NOP, and sub it into cancel the M in the numerator and such? Basically, is any normal operation okay there?

I'm working on it!
 
  • #18
QuarkCharmer said:
That is basically looking to see if it is a backwards chain rule correct?
Yup.
QuarkCharmer said:
\int \frac{x^{2}}{\sqrt(1-x)}dx

I let u=\sqrt(1-x), and dx = \frac{2\sqrt(1-x)du}{-1}
Which, since u=\sqrt{1-x}, gives you dx=-2u\,du. Then you need to express x in terms of u to finish off the substitution, which should give you the same thing micromass got.
So I came to this guy here:

\int \frac{2x^{2}\sqrt(1-x)}{-u}du

But now if I resubstitute the \sqrt(1-x) back in for u to cancel, I am still stuck with that x, and du at the end.
 
  • #19
Okay, I am giving this problem a shot now:

\int \frac{x^{2}}{\sqrt{1-x}}dx
u=\sqrt{1-x}
u^{2}=1-x
x=1-u^{2}

\frac{du}{dx}=\frac{-1}{2\sqrt{1-x}}

Since \sqrt{1-x} = u, then

\frac{du}{dx}=\frac{-1}{2u}
dx = -2udu

and so here is the squiggly guy:

\int \frac{-2ux^{2}}{u}du

and since x=1-u^{2}

x^{2}=1-2u^{2}+u^{4}

and so, putting all that back into the integrand:

\int \frac{-2u(1-2u^{2}+u^{4})}{u}du

Pair of u's cancel out

\int -2(1-2u^{2}+u^{4})du

\int -2+4u^{2}-2u^{4}du

Which is something that I can integrate easily...

-2u+\frac{4u^{3}}{3}-\frac{4u^{5}}{5}

To which, back go my original u's to get...

-2(\sqrt{1-x})+\frac{4(\sqrt{1-x})^{3}}{3}-\frac{4(\sqrt{1-x})^{5}}{5} + C

Which is a nightmare to simplify, that can't be right?
 
  • #20
I'd leave it as it. You can differentiate it and see if you recover the integrand.
 
  • #21
I found a much, much, much easier way to do this while playing around a bit. I'm too tired to latex it, but this one is correct as far as I can tell. The other answer might be right too, I didn't finish simplifying it.
33cqf75.jpg


The rest of my courses problems have definite integrals, and we have not covered that yet at all.

Again, thanks for all the help!
 
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  • #22
Also try it by letting u=(the entire denominator). For me, it's easier (and cleaner) to sub for the square root and then not have to worry about it (the sqr. root) again until converting back from u to x... Either way will work tho...
 
  • #23
kmacinto said:
Also try it by letting u=(the entire denominator). For me, it's easier (and cleaner) to sub for the square root and then not have to worry about it (the sqr. root) again until converting back from u to x... Either way will work tho...

I did that 2 posts up, in this case it seemed to be a bit more work expanding the roots back into the equation at the end.
 
  • #24
QuarkCharmer said:
The rest of my courses problems have definite integrals, and we have not covered that yet at all.

Again, thanks for all the help!

Definite integrals are surprisingly easy once you know indefinite integrals. If you have a function f(x) such that \int f(x) dx = F(x) + C, then the definite integral of f(x) from a to b will be:

\int_a^b f(x) dx = F(b) - F(a)

The theorem that proves this is the Funadmental Theorem of Calculus.
 
  • #25
I'm teaching myself that this afternoon actually. I just got to the part that claims:
\int_a^b \! f(x) \, dx = lim_{n\to\infty} \sum_{i=1}^{n} f(x_{i}) \Delta x

No word on the fundamental theorem of calculus yet. Still struggling with understanding how using mid/left/right points will yield the same limit.

Alternatively, how do I make the roman "d" as in "dx" in latex? \dif does not appear to work?
 
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  • #26
Well, that's mainly because as the number of "rectangles" increases (or goes to infinity), the difference between the area of all those rectangles and the area under the function will tend to 0, regardless of whether you use a left, right, or a mid point.

At least I think so.

EDIT: I don't understand...? I just type in dx in the latex and it gives me what i want. Unless you mean \operatorname{d}x, which is given by \operatorname{d}x.
 
  • #27
I'm still reading through the examples that use n=10 and other smaller numbers to do the rieman sum by hand.

Char wrote:
\int_a^b f(x) dx = F(b) - F(a)

That is, F(b)-F(a), where F(x) = the indefinite integral of f(x)? I have a hard time grasping how the area under the curve relates to the antiderivative. It seems like that constant would leave a huge margin for error. Idk, I'll get to that part I guess.

\dif is a command for the differential operator. It is simply an upface d to
clarify that it is an operator. E.g.:
\dif x dx
from: http://www.tug.org/texlive/Contents/live/texmf-dist/doc/latex/commath/commath.pdf
 
  • #28
QuarkCharmer said:
Still struggling with understanding how using mid/left/right points will yield the same limit.

This is not obvious to prove in a rigorous way. The proof of this uses things like uniform continuity of the integral and Cauchy sequences. Too much for a first encounter. I suggest you just accept this and go on.

Alternatively, how do I make the roman "d" as in "dx" in latex? \diff does not appear to work?

I think the standard is to use \mathrm{d}x.
 
  • #29
QuarkCharmer said:
I'm still reading through the examples that use n=10 and other smaller numbers to do the rieman sum by hand.

Char wrote:
\int_a^b f(x) dx = F(b) - F(a)

That is, F(b)-F(a), where F(x) = the indefinite integral of f(x)? I have a hard time grasping how the area under the curve relates to the antiderivative. It seems like that constant would leave a huge margin for error. Idk, I'll get to that part I guess.

That the antiderivative relates to the area is one of the most beautiful and surprising results from mathematics. I can't give you an intuitive reason why this is the case, you just need to read the proof and convince yourself from that fact. It's quite a short proof if I remember well.
 
  • #30
micromass said:
I suggest you just accept this and go on.

I already have, I was just thinking that the book would explain it, at least the idea, but it looks like it's jumping right into some sample definite integral problems instead. Ah well. I don't even know what a cauchy is :smile:

micromass said:
I can't give you an intuitive reason why this is the case, you just need to read the proof and convince yourself from that fact. It's quite a short proof if I remember well.

I will do that.
 

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