thaiqi
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- How to solve this vibration equation?
[tex] \ddot{x} + \omega_{0}^2 x = {e \over m} E_{x} [/tex]
Hello,everyone:
I got an equation:
<br /> \ddot{x} + \omega_{0}^2 x = {e \over m} E_{x} <br /> <br />
I know the solution is:
<br /> x(t) = {e \over {\omega_{0} m}} \int_{0}^{t} E_{x}(\xi) \sin{ \omega_{0} } (t - \xi) d \xi \\<br />
x(0) = \dot{x} (0) = 0
My attempt to verify this solution is by using formula:
<br /> {d \over dx } \int_{\alpha (x)}^{\beta (x)} f(x,y)dy<br /> = \int_{\alpha (x)}^{\beta (x)} { {\partial f(x,y)} \over {\partial x}} dy <br /> + f[x, \beta (x)] \beta^{\prime}(x) <br /> - f[x, \alpha (x)] \alpha^{\prime}(x)<br /> <br />
But I don't know how the physicist obtained it. Can anyone give an answer? Thanks.
I got an equation:
<br /> \ddot{x} + \omega_{0}^2 x = {e \over m} E_{x} <br /> <br />
I know the solution is:
<br /> x(t) = {e \over {\omega_{0} m}} \int_{0}^{t} E_{x}(\xi) \sin{ \omega_{0} } (t - \xi) d \xi \\<br />
x(0) = \dot{x} (0) = 0
My attempt to verify this solution is by using formula:
<br /> {d \over dx } \int_{\alpha (x)}^{\beta (x)} f(x,y)dy<br /> = \int_{\alpha (x)}^{\beta (x)} { {\partial f(x,y)} \over {\partial x}} dy <br /> + f[x, \beta (x)] \beta^{\prime}(x) <br /> - f[x, \alpha (x)] \alpha^{\prime}(x)<br /> <br />
But I don't know how the physicist obtained it. Can anyone give an answer? Thanks.