How to Calculate Christoffel Symbols in Spherical Coordinates?

[gabbagabbahey]

You want to show that r(t), \theta(t) and \phi(t) satisfy each of your 3 ODEs, so long as they also satisfy your straight line equation..

 

[latentcorpse]

ok. so i did the double derivative with time by hand (is there a way to write a simple maple code to do this for me? i tried but couldn't get it to work) and got:

a \ddot{r} \sin{\theta} \cos{\phi} + a \dot{r} \dot{\theta} \cos{\theta} \cos{\phi} - a \dot{r} \dot{\phi} \sin{\theta} \sin{\phi}

+ a \dot{r} \dot{\theta} \cos{\theta} \cos{\phi} + a r \ddot{\theta} \cos{\theta} \cos{\phi}

- a r \dot{\theta}^2 \sin{\theta} \cos{\phi} - a r \dot{\theta} \dot{\phi} \cos{\theta} \sin{\phi} - a \dot{r} \dot{\phi} \sin{\theta} \sin{\phi} - a r \ddot{\phi} \sin{\theta} \sin{\phi} - a r \dot{\theta} \dot{\phi} \cos{\theta} \sin{\phi}

- a r \dot{\phi}^2 \sin{\theta} \cos{\phi} + b \ddot{r} \sin{\theta} \sin{\phi} + b \dot{r} \dot{\theta} \cos{\theta} \sin{\phi} + b \dot{r} \dot{\phi} \sin{\theta} \cos{\phi} + b \dot{r} \dot{\theta} \cos{\theta} \sin{\phi} + b r \ddot{\theta} \cos{\theta} \sin{\phi}

- b r \dot{\theta}^2 \sin{\theta} \sin{\phi} + b r \dot{\theta} \dot{\phi} \cos{\theta} \cos{\phi} + b \dot{r} \dot{\phi} \sin{\theta} \cos{\phi} + b r \ddot{\phi} \sin{\theta} \cos{\phi} + b r \dot{\theta} \dot{\phi} \cos{\theta} \cos{\phi}

- b r \dot{\phi}^2 \sin{\theta} \ubs{\phi} + c \ddot{r} \cos{\theta{ - c \dot{r} \dot{\theta} \sin{\theta} - c \dot{r} \dot{\theta} \sin{\theta} - c r \ddot{\theta} \sin{\theta} - cr \dot{\theta}^2 \cos{\theta} = 0

 

[latentcorpse]

hmm. i don't know why that all posted on one line? can you read it by just clicking on the code?

anyway, i can group some terms together and what not but I'm still not sure what I am doing...surely i want to take the second derivative of r, theta and phi not of the straight line eqn?

 

[latentcorpse]

sorry, i sorted out the LaTeX in post 32. see my previous 2 posts.

 

[latentcorpse]

basically i don't understand why differentitating the straight line eqn wrt time twice helps us to show they also satisfy the geodesic eqn?

 

[gabbagabbahey]

Sorry, the form of the line equation you want to use is the form you posted in #24...You then have x(t)=a_x+b_xt, y(t)=a_y+b_yt, and z(t)=a_z+b_zt in Cartesians...what are these equations in Spherical coords?

 

[latentcorpse]

ok. i would get

r(t) \sin{\theta(t)} \cos{\phi(t)}=a_x + b_x t
r(t) \sin{\theta(t)} \sin{\phi(t)}=a_y + b_y t
r(t) \cos{\theta(t)}=a_z + b_z t

surely i need to rearrange these to get
r=something
theta=something and
phi=something?

 

[dx]

In the first post, you said that the metric is a 2-form. It is not. A 2-form is a covariant anti-symmetric tensor of rank 2, while a metric is always a symmetric tensor.

 

[gabbagabbahey]

surely i need to rearrange these to get
r=something
theta=something and
phi=something?

That shouldn't be too hard to do...the inverse relations between \{r,\theta,\phi\} and \{x,y,z\} are fairly well known

 

[latentcorpse]

ok. so i take
r(t)=\sqrt{x(t)^2+y(t)^2+z(t)^2}
\theta(t)=\tan^{-1}{\frac{y}{x}}
\phi(t)=\cos^{-1}{\frac{z}{r}}

and plug these into the 3 geodesic ODE's, yes?

also could somebody please remind me of the difference between a two form and a rank 2 covariant tensor?
thanks.

 

[dx]

also could somebody please remind me of the difference between a two form and a rank 2 covariant tensor?
thanks.

A 2-form is a rank 2 covariant tensor that is also antisymmetric.

 

[latentcorpse]

so

r(t)=\sqrt{a_x^2+a_y^2+a_z^2+(b_x^2+b_y^2+b_z^2)t^2}

\theta(t)=\tan^{-1}{\frac{a_y+b_yt}{a_x+b_xt}}

\phi(t)=\cos^{-1}{\frac{a_z+b_zt}{r}}

are these what i should sub into the geodesic eqns?

 

[gabbagabbahey]

Sounds like a plan to me...

 

[latentcorpse]

y:=sqrt((a+b*t)^2+(c+d*t)^2+(e+f*t)^2);
r:=diff(y,t,t);
s:=arctan((c+d*t)/(a+b*t));
q:=simplify(y*diff(s,t,t));
l:=arccos((e+f*t)/y);
p:=simplify(y*sin^2(s)*diff(l,t,t));
simplify(r-q+p);

i tried the above MAPLE code because this calculation was getting tediously long by hand but i can't seem to get 0 out as an answer...any ideas where I'm going wrong?

 

[gabbagabbahey]

\arctan(y/x)\neq\tan^{-1}(y/x)

 

[latentcorpse]

huh? why not?
i can't use tan^(-1) as legitmate maple code - it interprets that as 1/tan(...)

 

[gabbagabbahey]

\arctan is single valued, while the inverse tangent is multivalued (same thing for \cos^{-1})...Does Maple have an "inverse" command?

 

[latentcorpse]

apparently arctan is the inverse of tan according to maple? do you use a different program to maple?
i was all for doing it by hand before i got halfway thorugh the first derivative and realized the whole calculation was going to take about 10 pages, somewhere in which i was bound to make a tedious mistake whilst differentiating. as one of my levturers recently said, most physicists just use maple (or i guess some similar program) for these types of calculations.

 

[gabbagabbahey]

It shouldn't be too hard to do by hand...For starters, \dot{x}=b_x, \dot{y}=b_y
and \dot{z}=b_z; so


\dot{r}=\frac{x\dot{x}+y\dot{y}+z\dot{z}}{\sqrt{x^2+y^2+z^2}}=\frac{b_xx+b_yy+b_zz}{r}

\implies \ddot{r}=\frac{b_x^2+b_y^2+b_z^2}{r}-\frac{b_xx+b_yy+b_zz}{r^2}\dot{r}=\frac{b^2}{r}-\frac{(b_xx+b_yy+b_zz)^2}{r^3}

 

[latentcorpse]

\theta=\tan^{-1}{\frac{y}{x}}

\dot{\theta} = \frac{1}{1+(\frac{y}{x})^2} \left( \dot{y} x^{-1} - y x^{-2} \dot{x} \right)

\ddot{\theta} = \frac{\left( \ddot{y} x^{-1} - \dot{y} x^{-2} \dot{x} \right)}{\left(1 + \left(\frac{y}{x} \right)^2 \right)} - \frac{2y}{x} \frac{ \left( \dot{y} x^{-1} - y x^{-2} \dot{x} \right)^2}{ \left( 1 + \left( \frac{y}{x} \right)^2 \right)^2}

is that ok?

 

[gabbagabbahey]

Shouldn't you have \phi=\tan^{-1}(y/x)?

 

[latentcorpse]

ok so

\ddot{\phi}=\frac{\ddot{y} x^{-1} -2 \dot{y} x^{-2} \dot{x} - y x^{-2} \dot{x} +2y x^{-3} \dot{x}^2}{1+ \left( \frac{y}{x} \right)^2} - \frac{2y}{x} \frac{ \left( \dot{y} x^{-1} - y x^{-2} \dot{x} \right)^2}{\left( 1+ \left( \frac{y}{x} \right)^2 \right)^2}

 

[gabbagabbahey]

That doesn't look quite right to me...I'd start by simplifying \dot{\phi} as much as possible, and then converting it to spherical coordinates...what do you get when you do that?

 

[latentcorpse]

\dot{\phi}=\frac{1}{1+ \left( \frac{y}{x} \right)^2 } \left( \dot{y} x^{-1} - y x^{-2} \dot{x}} \right)=\frac{1}{1+ \left( \frac{a_y+b_yt}{a_x+b_xt} \right)^2} \left( \frac{b_y}{a_x+b_xt}-\frac{b_x(a_y+b_yt)}{(a_x+b_xt)^2} \right)
that ok?

 

[gabbagabbahey]

\dot{\phi}=\frac{1}{1+ \left( \frac{y}{x} \right)^2 } \left( \dot{y} x^{-1} - y x^{-2} \dot{x}} \right)

I'd multiply both the numerator and denominator by x^2, sub in \dot{x}=b_x and \dot{y}=b_y and then write x and y in terms of r, \theta and \phi...

 

[latentcorpse]

\dot{\phi} = \frac{r \sin{\theta}}{1+r^2 \sin^2{\theta} \sin^2{\phi}} \left( b_y \cos{\phi} - b_x \sin{\phi} \right)

is that going to help? shouldn't i take the second derivative before i switch to spherical coordinates?

 

[gabbagabbahey]

\dot{\phi} = \frac{r \sin{\theta}}{1+r^2 \sin^2{\theta} \sin^2{\phi}} \left( b_y \cos{\phi} - b_x \sin{\phi} \right)

is that going to help? shouldn't i take the second derivative before i switch to spherical coordinates?

It would help, if you did it properly

Try again, you have an error...and don't be afraid to simplify your result as much as possible.

 

[latentcorpse]

\dot{\phi}=\frac{1}{1+ \left( \frac{y}{x} \right)^2} \left( \dot{y} x^{-1} - y x^{-2} \dot{x} \right) = \frac{1}{1+y^2} \left( \dot{y} x - y \dot{x} \right)

\ddot{\phi} = \frac{ \left( \ddot{y} x + \dot{y} \dot{x} - \dot{y} \dot{x} - y \ddot{x} \right) \left( 1+ y^2 \right) - 2 y \dot{y} \left( \dot{y} x - y \dot{x} \right) }{ \left(1+y^2 \right)^2 } note the first term in the numerator will disappear because \ddot{y}=\ddot{x}=0 and \dot{y}\dot{x}-\dot{x}\dot{y}=0.

\ddot{\phi} = - \frac{2r \sin{\theta} \sin{\phi} b_y \left( b_y r \sin{\theta} \cos{\phi} - b_x r \sin{\theta} \sin{\phi} \right) }{ \left(1+r^2 \sin^2{\theta} \sin^2{\phi} \right)^2}
\ddot{\phi}=-\frac{2 b_y r^2 \sin^2{\theta} \sin{\phi} \left( b_y \cos{\phi} - b_x \sin{\phi} \right)}{ \left(1+r^2 \sin^2{\theta} \sin^2{\phi} \right)^2}

i can't see how to simplify that further...

 

[gabbagabbahey]

When you multiply 1+\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)^2 by x^2, should you get x^2+y^2?

 

[latentcorpse]

\dot{\phi}=\frac{\dot{y}x-y \dot{x}}{x^2+y^2}

\ddot{\phi}=\frac{ \left( \ddot{y} x + \dot{y} \dot{x} - \dot{y} \dot{x} - y \ddot{x} \right) \left( x^2+y^2 \right) - \left( 2 x \dot{x} + 2 y \dot{y} \right) \left( \dot{y} x - y \dot{x} \right)}{ \left( x^2+y^2 \right)^2}

\ddot{\phi} = \frac{-2 \left( b_x r \sin{\theta} \cos{\phi} + b_y r \sin{\theta} \sin{\phi} \right) \left( b_y r \sin{\theta} \cos{\phi} - b_x r \sin{\theta} \sin{\phi} \right) }{ \left( r^2 \sin^2{\theta} \cos^2{\phi} + r^2 \sin^2{\theta} \sin^2{\phi} \right)^2}

\ddot{\phi}=\frac{-2r^2 \sin^2{\theta} \left(b_x \cos{\phi} + b_y \sin{\phi} \right) \left( b_y \cos{\phi} - b_x \sin{\phi} \right)}{r^4 \sin^4{\theta}}

\ddot{\phi} = \frac{-2 \left( b_x b_y \cos^2{\phi} + b_y^2 \sin{\phi} \cos{\phi} - b_x^2 \sin{\phi} \cos{\phi} - b_x b_y sin^2{\phi} \right)}{r^2 \sin^2{\theta}}

hopefully that looks better? i was hoping the numerator would simplify nicer though.