How to Calculate Christoffel Symbols in Spherical Coordinates?

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You want to show that [itex]r(t)[/itex], [itex]\theta(t)[/itex] and [itex]\phi(t)[/itex] satisfy each of your 3 ODEs, so long as they also satisfy your straight line equation..
 
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ok. so i did the double derivative with time by hand (is there a way to write a simple maple code to do this for me? i tried but couldn't get it to work) and got:

[tex]a \ddot{r} \sin{\theta} \cos{\phi} + a \dot{r} \dot{\theta} \cos{\theta} \cos{\phi} - a \dot{r} \dot{\phi} \sin{\theta} \sin{\phi}[/tex]

[tex]+ a \dot{r} \dot{\theta} \cos{\theta} \cos{\phi} + a r \ddot{\theta} \cos{\theta} \cos{\phi}[/tex]

[tex]- a r \dot{\theta}^2 \sin{\theta} \cos{\phi} - a r \dot{\theta} \dot{\phi} \cos{\theta} \sin{\phi} - a \dot{r} \dot{\phi} \sin{\theta} \sin{\phi} - a r \ddot{\phi} \sin{\theta} \sin{\phi} - a r \dot{\theta} \dot{\phi} \cos{\theta} \sin{\phi}[/tex]

[tex]- a r \dot{\phi}^2 \sin{\theta} \cos{\phi} + b \ddot{r} \sin{\theta} \sin{\phi} + b \dot{r} \dot{\theta} \cos{\theta} \sin{\phi} + b \dot{r} \dot{\phi} \sin{\theta} \cos{\phi} + b \dot{r} \dot{\theta} \cos{\theta} \sin{\phi} + b r \ddot{\theta} \cos{\theta} \sin{\phi}[/tex]

[tex]- b r \dot{\theta}^2 \sin{\theta} \sin{\phi} + b r \dot{\theta} \dot{\phi} \cos{\theta} \cos{\phi} + b \dot{r} \dot{\phi} \sin{\theta} \cos{\phi} + b r \ddot{\phi} \sin{\theta} \cos{\phi} + b r \dot{\theta} \dot{\phi} \cos{\theta} \cos{\phi}[/tex]

[tex]- b r \dot{\phi}^2 \sin{\theta} \ubs{\phi} + c \ddot{r} \cos{\theta{ - c \dot{r} \dot{\theta} \sin{\theta} - c \dot{r} \dot{\theta} \sin{\theta} - c r \ddot{\theta} \sin{\theta} - cr \dot{\theta}^2 \cos{\theta} = 0[/tex]
 
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hmm. i don't know why that all posted on one line? can you read it by just clicking on the code?

anyway, i can group some terms together and what not but I'm still not sure what I am doing...surely i want to take the second derivative of r, theta and phi not of the straight line eqn?
 
sorry, i sorted out the LaTeX in post 32. see my previous 2 posts.
 
basically i don't understand why differentitating the straight line eqn wrt time twice helps us to show they also satisfy the geodesic eqn?
 
Sorry, the form of the line equation you want to use is the form you posted in #24...You then have [itex]x(t)=a_x+b_xt[/itex], [itex]y(t)=a_y+b_yt[/itex], and [itex]z(t)=a_z+b_zt[/itex] in Cartesians...what are these equations in Spherical coords?
 
ok. i would get

[tex]r(t) \sin{\theta(t)} \cos{\phi(t)}=a_x + b_x t[/tex]
[tex]r(t) \sin{\theta(t)} \sin{\phi(t)}=a_y + b_y t[/tex]
[tex]r(t) \cos{\theta(t)}=a_z + b_z t[/tex]

surely i need to rearrange these to get
r=something
theta=something and
phi=something?
 
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In the first post, you said that the metric is a 2-form. It is not. A 2-form is a covariant anti-symmetric tensor of rank 2, while a metric is always a symmetric tensor.
 
latentcorpse said:
surely i need to rearrange these to get
r=something
theta=something and
phi=something?

That shouldn't be too hard to do...the inverse relations between [itex]\{r,\theta,\phi\}[/itex] and [itex]\{x,y,z\}[/itex] are fairly well known:wink:
 
ok. so i take
[tex]r(t)=\sqrt{x(t)^2+y(t)^2+z(t)^2}[/tex]
[tex]\theta(t)=\tan^{-1}{\frac{y}{x}}[/tex]
[tex]\phi(t)=\cos^{-1}{\frac{z}{r}}[/tex]

and plug these into the 3 geodesic ODE's, yes?

also could somebody please remind me of the difference between a two form and a rank 2 covariant tensor?
thanks.
 
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latentcorpse said:
also could somebody please remind me of the difference between a two form and a rank 2 covariant tensor?
thanks.

A 2-form is a rank 2 covariant tensor that is also antisymmetric.
 
so

[tex]r(t)=\sqrt{a_x^2+a_y^2+a_z^2+(b_x^2+b_y^2+b_z^2)t^2}[/tex]

[tex]\theta(t)=\tan^{-1}{\frac{a_y+b_yt}{a_x+b_xt}}[/tex]

[tex]\phi(t)=\cos^{-1}{\frac{a_z+b_zt}{r}}[/tex]

are these what i should sub into the geodesic eqns?
 
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y:=sqrt((a+b*t)^2+(c+d*t)^2+(e+f*t)^2);
r:=diff(y,t,t);
s:=arctan((c+d*t)/(a+b*t));
q:=simplify(y*diff(s,t,t));
l:=arccos((e+f*t)/y);
p:=simplify(y*sin^2(s)*diff(l,t,t));
simplify(r-q+p);

i tried the above MAPLE code because this calculation was getting tediously long by hand but i can't seem to get 0 out as an answer...any ideas where I'm going wrong?
 
huh? why not?
i can't use tan^(-1) as legitmate maple code - it interprets that as 1/tan(...)
 
[itex]\arctan[/itex] is single valued, while the inverse tangent is multivalued (same thing for [itex]\cos^{-1}[/itex])...Does Maple have an "inverse" command?
 
apparently arctan is the inverse of tan according to maple? do you use a different program to maple?
i was all for doing it by hand before i got halfway thorugh the first derivative and realized the whole calculation was going to take about 10 pages, somewhere in which i was bound to make a tedious mistake whilst differentiating. as one of my levturers recently said, most physicists just use maple (or i guess some similar program) for these types of calculations.
 
It shouldn't be too hard to do by hand...For starters, [itex]\dot{x}=b_x[/itex], [itex]\dot{y}=b_y[/itex]
and [itex]\dot{z}=b_z[/itex]; so


[tex]\dot{r}=\frac{x\dot{x}+y\dot{y}+z\dot{z}}{\sqrt{x^2+y^2+z^2}}=\frac{b_xx+b_yy+b_zz}{r}[/tex]

[tex]\implies \ddot{r}=\frac{b_x^2+b_y^2+b_z^2}{r}-\frac{b_xx+b_yy+b_zz}{r^2}\dot{r}=\frac{b^2}{r}-\frac{(b_xx+b_yy+b_zz)^2}{r^3}[/tex]
 
[tex]\theta=\tan^{-1}{\frac{y}{x}}[/tex]

[tex]\dot{\theta} = \frac{1}{1+(\frac{y}{x})^2} \left( \dot{y} x^{-1} - y x^{-2} \dot{x} \right)[/tex]

[tex]\ddot{\theta} = \frac{\left( \ddot{y} x^{-1} - \dot{y} x^{-2} \dot{x} \right)}{\left(1 + \left(\frac{y}{x} \right)^2 \right)} - \frac{2y}{x} \frac{ \left( \dot{y} x^{-1} - y x^{-2} \dot{x} \right)^2}{ \left( 1 + \left( \frac{y}{x} \right)^2 \right)^2}[/tex]

is that ok?
 
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ok so

[tex]\ddot{\phi}=\frac{\ddot{y} x^{-1} -2 \dot{y} x^{-2} \dot{x} - y x^{-2} \dot{x} +2y x^{-3} \dot{x}^2}{1+ \left( \frac{y}{x} \right)^2} - \frac{2y}{x} \frac{ \left( \dot{y} x^{-1} - y x^{-2} \dot{x} \right)^2}{\left( 1+ \left( \frac{y}{x} \right)^2 \right)^2}[/tex]
 
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That doesn't look quite right to me...I'd start by simplifying [itex]\dot{\phi}[/itex] as much as possible, and then converting it to spherical coordinates...what do you get when you do that?
 
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[tex]\dot{\phi}=\frac{1}{1+ \left( \frac{y}{x} \right)^2 } \left( \dot{y} x^{-1} - y x^{-2} \dot{x}} \right)=\frac{1}{1+ \left( \frac{a_y+b_yt}{a_x+b_xt} \right)^2} \left( \frac{b_y}{a_x+b_xt}-\frac{b_x(a_y+b_yt)}{(a_x+b_xt)^2} \right)[/tex]
that ok?
 
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latentcorpse said:
[tex]\dot{\phi}=\frac{1}{1+ \left( \frac{y}{x} \right)^2 } \left( \dot{y} x^{-1} - y x^{-2} \dot{x}} \right)[/tex]
I'd multiply both the numerator and denominator by [itex]x^2[/itex], sub in [itex]\dot{x}=b_x[/itex] and [itex]\dot{y}=b_y[/itex] and then write [itex]x[/itex] and [itex]y[/itex] in terms of [itex]r[/itex], [itex]\theta[/itex] and [itex]\phi[/itex]...
 
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[tex]\dot{\phi} = \frac{r \sin{\theta}}{1+r^2 \sin^2{\theta} \sin^2{\phi}} \left( b_y \cos{\phi} - b_x \sin{\phi} \right)[/tex]

is that going to help? shouldn't i take the second derivative before i switch to spherical coordinates?
 
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latentcorpse said:
[tex]\dot{\phi} = \frac{r \sin{\theta}}{1+r^2 \sin^2{\theta} \sin^2{\phi}} \left( b_y \cos{\phi} - b_x \sin{\phi} \right)[/tex]

is that going to help? shouldn't i take the second derivative before i switch to spherical coordinates?

It would help, if you did it properly:wink:

Try again, you have an error...and don't be afraid to simplify your result as much as possible.
 
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[tex]\dot{\phi}=\frac{1}{1+ \left( \frac{y}{x} \right)^2} \left( \dot{y} x^{-1} - y x^{-2} \dot{x} \right) = \frac{1}{1+y^2} \left( \dot{y} x - y \dot{x} \right)[/tex]

[tex]\ddot{\phi} = \frac{ \left( \ddot{y} x + \dot{y} \dot{x} - \dot{y} \dot{x} - y \ddot{x} \right) \left( 1+ y^2 \right) - 2 y \dot{y} \left( \dot{y} x - y \dot{x} \right) }{ \left(1+y^2 \right)^2 }[/tex] note the first term in the numerator will disappear because [tex]\ddot{y}=\ddot{x}=0[/tex] and [tex]\dot{y}\dot{x}-\dot{x}\dot{y}=0[/tex].

[tex]\ddot{\phi} = - \frac{2r \sin{\theta} \sin{\phi} b_y \left( b_y r \sin{\theta} \cos{\phi} - b_x r \sin{\theta} \sin{\phi} \right) }{ \left(1+r^2 \sin^2{\theta} \sin^2{\phi} \right)^2}[/tex]
[tex]\ddot{\phi}=-\frac{2 b_y r^2 \sin^2{\theta} \sin{\phi} \left( b_y \cos{\phi} - b_x \sin{\phi} \right)}{ \left(1+r^2 \sin^2{\theta} \sin^2{\phi} \right)^2}[/tex]

i can't see how to simplify that further...
 
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When you multiply [itex]1+\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)^2[/itex] by [itex]x^2[/itex], should you get [itex]x^2+y^2[/itex]?
 
[tex]\dot{\phi}=\frac{\dot{y}x-y \dot{x}}{x^2+y^2}[/tex]

[tex]\ddot{\phi}=\frac{ \left( \ddot{y} x + \dot{y} \dot{x} - \dot{y} \dot{x} - y \ddot{x} \right) \left( x^2+y^2 \right) - \left( 2 x \dot{x} + 2 y \dot{y} \right) \left( \dot{y} x - y \dot{x} \right)}{ \left( x^2+y^2 \right)^2}[/tex]

[tex]\ddot{\phi} = \frac{-2 \left( b_x r \sin{\theta} \cos{\phi} + b_y r \sin{\theta} \sin{\phi} \right) \left( b_y r \sin{\theta} \cos{\phi} - b_x r \sin{\theta} \sin{\phi} \right) }{ \left( r^2 \sin^2{\theta} \cos^2{\phi} + r^2 \sin^2{\theta} \sin^2{\phi} \right)^2}[/tex]

[tex]\ddot{\phi}=\frac{-2r^2 \sin^2{\theta} \left(b_x \cos{\phi} + b_y \sin{\phi} \right) \left( b_y \cos{\phi} - b_x \sin{\phi} \right)}{r^4 \sin^4{\theta}}[/tex]

[tex]\ddot{\phi} = \frac{-2 \left( b_x b_y \cos^2{\phi} + b_y^2 \sin{\phi} \cos{\phi} - b_x^2 \sin{\phi} \cos{\phi} - b_x b_y sin^2{\phi} \right)}{r^2 \sin^2{\theta}}[/tex]

hopefully that looks better? i was hoping the numerator would simplify nicer though.
 
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