How to compute multidimensional inverse Fourier transform

Hanyu Ye
Messages
4
Reaction score
0
Hello, everybody. I am currently working on deriving solutions for Stokes flows. I encounter a multidimensional inverse Fourier transform. I already known the Fourier transform of the pressure field:
\tilde{p}=-\frac{i}{{{k}^{2}}}\mathbf{F}\centerdot \mathbf{k}
where i is the imaginary unit, \mathbf{k} is the frequency vector, k is the length of \mathbf{k} (That is, k=\left\| \mathbf{k} \right\|), and \mathbf{F} is a constant vector. I don't know how to perform the inverse transform, although I have found the final answer in some references, which reads
p=\frac{\mathbf{F}\centerdot \mathbf{x}}{4\pi {{r}^{3}}}
where r=\left\| \mathbf{x} \right\|
Does anybody has an idea? Thanks a lot.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Hanyu Ye said:
Hello, everybody. I am currently working on deriving solutions for Stokes flows. I encounter a multidimensional inverse Fourier transform. I already known the Fourier transform of the pressure field:
\tilde{p}=-\frac{i}{{{k}^{2}}}\mathbf{F}\centerdot \mathbf{k}
where i is the imaginary unit, \mathbf{k} is the frequency vector, k is the length of \mathbf{k} (That is, k=\left\| \mathbf{k} \right\|), and \mathbf{F} is a constant vector. I don't know how to perform the inverse transform, although I have found the final answer in some references, which reads
p=\frac{\mathbf{F}\centerdot \mathbf{x}}{4\pi {{r}^{3}}}
where r=\left\| \mathbf{x} \right\|
Does anybody has an idea? Thanks a lot.
If you could show what you fear is the problem you have in solving these problems, it could help us understand where you need help.
 
Hanyu Ye said:
Hello, everybody. I am currently working on deriving solutions for Stokes flows. I encounter a multidimensional inverse Fourier transform. I already known the Fourier transform of the pressure field:
\tilde{p}=-\frac{i}{{{k}^{2}}}\mathbf{F}\centerdot \mathbf{k}
where i is the imaginary unit, \mathbf{k} is the frequency vector, k is the length of \mathbf{k} (That is, k=\left\| \mathbf{k} \right\|), and \mathbf{F} is a constant vector. I don't know how to perform the inverse transform, although I have found the final answer in some references, which reads
p=\frac{\mathbf{F}\centerdot \mathbf{x}}{4\pi {{r}^{3}}}
where r=\left\| \mathbf{x} \right\|
Does anybody has an idea? Thanks a lot.
Oh, I have found the answer. It is presented in the following link:
http://www.fuw.edu.pl/~mklis/publications/Hydro/oseen.pdf
 
Hi. I have got question as in title. How can idea of instantaneous dipole moment for atoms like, for example hydrogen be consistent with idea of orbitals? At my level of knowledge London dispersion forces are derived taking into account Bohr model of atom. But we know today that this model is not correct. If it would be correct I understand that at each time electron is at some point at radius at some angle and there is dipole moment at this time from nucleus to electron at orbit. But how...
Back
Top