maximus123
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Hi everyone, my problem is this
Using Dirac notation show that
\frac{d}{dt}<\varphi|\hat{A}|\varphi> = \frac{i}{\hbar}<\varphi|[\hat{H},\hat{A}]|\varphi>
where A does not explicitly depend on t
I am given as a hint that the hamiltonian operator in Dirac notation is
i\hbar\frac{d}{dt}|\varphi>=\hat{H}|\varphi>
and that the conjugate expression is
-i\hbar\frac{d}{dt}<\varphi|=<\varphi|\hat{H}
I'm a bit stumped, I know that the left hand side of the equation is the time derivative of the expectation value of operator A but as for the right hand side. I tried to expand the commutator as normal as if it were acting on the function (ket) |phi> but this came out to be zero which if true would surely make the whole RHS zero, which makes me think I don't understand what the rhs means. Any help would be appreciated.
Using Dirac notation show that
\frac{d}{dt}<\varphi|\hat{A}|\varphi> = \frac{i}{\hbar}<\varphi|[\hat{H},\hat{A}]|\varphi>
where A does not explicitly depend on t
I am given as a hint that the hamiltonian operator in Dirac notation is
i\hbar\frac{d}{dt}|\varphi>=\hat{H}|\varphi>
and that the conjugate expression is
-i\hbar\frac{d}{dt}<\varphi|=<\varphi|\hat{H}
I'm a bit stumped, I know that the left hand side of the equation is the time derivative of the expectation value of operator A but as for the right hand side. I tried to expand the commutator as normal as if it were acting on the function (ket) |phi> but this came out to be zero which if true would surely make the whole RHS zero, which makes me think I don't understand what the rhs means. Any help would be appreciated.