How to Design an Op Amp Integrator with Specific Parameters?

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To design an op-amp integrator with a DC gain of -10 V/V using R1 = 200 Ω and R2 = 2 kΩ, the gain-bandwidth product of the μA741 op-amp, which is 1 MHz, must be considered. The required capacitance value can be calculated to achieve a 3dB frequency of 50 kHz. The integrator behaves as a second-order low-pass filter, where the gain decreases with increasing frequency, specifically halving when the capacitive reactance equals R2. The discussion emphasizes the importance of accurately modeling the op-amp's behavior and understanding the implications of the gain-bandwidth product on the design. Proper calculations and approximations are crucial for achieving the desired performance in the integrator circuit.
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Homework Statement



Design an op-amp-based integrator with the dc gain equal to -10 V/V (use R1 = 200 Ω and R2 = 2 kΩ). Knowing the gain-bandwidth product of the μA741 op amp, find the proper value of a capacitance C of the integrator so that its 3dB frequency is 50 kHz.

Homework Equations



bg7QK.png
(1)

The Attempt at a Solution



I have found out that the gain-bandwidth product of the amp is 1 MHz
And this is my guess how the amplifier looks like.
zBK1s.png



I think I could use formula (1) but i would think I had to replace R2 with this formula :
dcgd6.png
(2)

because the Op amp has a capacitor.


Am I on the right track for this?
 
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The canonical approach to this is to model the op amp as a gain block ω0/s

where ω0 is your 1 MHz*2π. (So that the gain at 1 MHz = 1).

Then write the amplitude response of the combined network using your R2 and C chosen such that the new 3dB-down frequency is 50 KHz.

I might as well warn you that the result is a second-order transfer function, not just a nice
K/(Ts+1) first-order one. Of course, it's still a lowpass filter with a definite 50-KHz 3db-down cutoff frequency. 2nd-orders are just bitchier than 1st to plot & calculate, but it's straight-forward.

Your text/instructor might have given you a short-cut approximation to this problem, yielding another 1st-order transfer function. I don't know.

You could try approximating the 2nd order xfr fn by a 1st order one by factoring the 2nd-order polynomial, starting tentatively with C assuming an infinite-gain op amp, then throwing out the less significant pole.
 
Last edited:
It is also known as a low pass filter because at 'low' frquencies Xc is large and the DC(and AC) gain is given by -R2/R1.
At 'high' frequencies Xc is small and 'shorts' R2. The gain falls with increasing frequency.
An important point (from a practical point of view) is when Xc = R2. Can you see when this occurs the DC gain will have halved?
 
technician said:
It is also known as a low pass filter because at 'low' frquencies Xc is large and the DC(and AC) gain is given by -R2/R1.
At 'high' frequencies Xc is small and 'shorts' R2. The gain falls with increasing frequency.
An important point (from a practical point of view) is when Xc = R2. Can you see when this occurs the DC gain will have halved?

1. The OP is asked to include the effects of the gain-bandwidth product of the 741.
2. Gain when XC = R2 is reduced to 1/√2 of the DC gain, not 1/2.
 
Correction noted 1/√2 not 1/2
 

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