How to find the acceleration of two objects on a pulley system

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To find the acceleration of two objects in a pulley system, the relationship between their velocities is crucial, with m2's speed being half of m1's. The correct formula for m1's acceleration is derived from conservation of energy and the relationship between the masses, resulting in a1 = (2m2g) / (4m1 + m2). It's emphasized that the tension in the rope remains constant throughout due to its massless nature and lack of friction. The discussion highlights the importance of correctly applying Newton's second law and understanding the dynamics of the system. Accurate calculations depend on these principles to avoid errors in determining acceleration.
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i willl leave out the numbers to make this go more smoothly


knight_Figure_08_40.jpg


find the acceleration of m1

heres what i thought:

(m2/(m1+m2))g= a

but this is wrong. can you guys please help me out. thanks
 
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friction is neglected
 
Note that the rope length increases on BOTH sides of m2 equally.
Thus, in order for the TOTAL length of ropes to remain constant, the speed of m2 must be HALF of the speed of m1
 
thanks for helping me, but I am still getting the wrong answer. after what you said, i realized that the tension of m(m2), too, had to be 1/2 of the tension of M (m1)

so here's how i did it this time:

a= (2(m)g)/(M-2m)

this is also wrong
 
Yes, that's wrong.
Here's a correct way.
Let m1's velocity (and acceleration) be positive, m2's velocity (and acceleration) be negative.
The SPEED of m2 is half that m1's, that is the velocities are related v2=-v1/2

There is conservation of mechanical energy, so we have:
\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1}^{2}+\frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2}^{2}+m_{2}gz=C
Differentiating, we get:
m_{1}v_{1}a_{1}+m_{2}v_{2}a_{2}+m_{2}gv_{2}=0
Note that our choice of v2 negative implies the correct loss of potential energy.

By using the relation between the velocities (and accelerations), we get, by dividing with v1/2:
(2m_{1}+\frac{m_{2}}{2})a_{1}=m_{2}g
that is:
a_{1}=\frac{2m_{2}g}{4m_{1}+m_{2}}
 
thanks arildno :!)

:cool:
 
nick727kcin said:
thanks for helping me, but I am still getting the wrong answer. after what you said, i realized that the tension of m(m2), too, had to be 1/2 of the tension of M (m1)

so here's how i did it this time:

a= (2(m)g)/(M-2m)

this is also wrong
OOPS!
What you say about the tension is totally wrong!
Since the rope is assumed massless, and there is no friction, the tension must be the same THROUGHOUT the rope!

Here's how you should to this from F=ma:
For m1, we have:
T=m_{1}a_{1}
For m2, consider the system of the mass plus the half-circle arc of massless rope around it, with vertical ends of rope.
Since the rope is massless, we get the equation for the system's C.M:
T+T-m_{2}g=m_{2}a_{2}+0*a_{rope}\to{2T}-m_{2}g=-m_{2}\frac{a_{1}}{2}
Eliminating the tension in the last equation by using the first equation reproduces the result in the previous post.
 

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