MHB How to Prove the Integral of Log Absolute Value is 0?

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    2017
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The integral of the logarithm of the absolute value, specifically $$\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\ln\lvert 1 - e^{it}\rvert\, dt$$, is proposed to be proven equal to zero. The problem was part of the weekly Problem of the Week (POTW) discussion. Opalg provided a correct solution to the integral, which can be reviewed in the thread. Participants are encouraged to follow the guidelines for submitting solutions. The discussion emphasizes the importance of understanding the properties of logarithmic integrals in complex analysis.
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Here is this week's POTW:

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Prove that $$\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\ln\lvert 1 - e^{it}\rvert\, dt = 0$$

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Remember to read the http://www.mathhelpboards.com/showthread.php?772-Problem-of-the-Week-%28POTW%29-Procedure-and-Guidelines to find out how to http://www.mathhelpboards.com/forms.php?do=form&fid=2!
 
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This week's problem was solved correctly by Opalg. You can read his solution below.
If $u = \frac12t$ then $1-e^{it} = 1 - \cos t - i\sin t = 2\sin^2u - 2i\sin u\cos u = 2\sin u(-ie^{iu})$, and so $|1-e^{it}| = 2|\sin u|.$ Therefore $$\int_{-\pi}^\pi \ln|1-e^{it}|\,dt = \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2}\ln|2\sin u|\,2du = 4\int_0^{\pi/2}\ln(2\sin u)\,du$$ (since the integral from $-\frac12\pi$ to $0$ is the same as the integral from $0$ to $\frac12\pi$).

Let $$J = \int_0^{\pi/2}\ln(\sin x)\,dx$$.This is an improper integral because of the singularity at $x=0$. But since $\sin x \approx x$ when $x$ is close to $0$, the integral converges by comparison with $$\int\ln x\,dx = x\ln x - x + C$$, which converges at $x = 0.$

To evaluate $J$, let $y = \frac12x$. Then $\sin x = 2\sin y\cos y $, and $$J = \int_0^{\pi/4}\ln(2\sin y \cos y)\,2dy = 2\int_0^{\pi/4} \bigl(\ln2 + \ln\sin y + \ln\cos y\bigr)\,dy = \tfrac\pi2\ln2 + 2\int_0^{\pi/4}\ln\sin y\,dy + 2\int_0^{\pi/4}\ln\cos y\,dy.$$ In the last of those integrals, make the substitution $y\to \frac\pi2-y.$ It then becomes $$2\int_{\pi/4}^{\pi/2}\ln\sin y\,dy$$ (because $\cos\bigl(\frac\pi2 - y\bigr) = \sin y$). Therefore $$J = \tfrac\pi2\ln2 + 2\int_0^{\pi/4}\ln\sin y\,dy + 2\int_{\pi/4}^{\pi/2}\ln\sin y\,dy = \tfrac\pi2\ln2 + 2J.$$ So $J = -\tfrac\pi2\ln2.$ It follows that $$\int_0^{\pi/2}\ln(2\sin x)\,dx = \int_0^{\pi/2}\ln2\,dx + \int_0^{\pi/2}\ln(\sin x)\,dx = \tfrac\pi2\ln2 + J = 0.$$ From the first paragraph of the proof, this shows that $$\int_{-\pi}^\pi \ln|1-e^{it}|\,dt = 0.$$