How to prove the orthogonality of eigenfunctions in Sturm-Louisville problems?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the orthogonality of eigenfunctions in Sturm-Louisville problems, specifically focusing on the integral of the product of different eigenfunctions. The context involves differential equations and boundary conditions related to eigenvalue problems.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the integral that needs to be shown as zero, with attempts to manipulate the expression using integration by parts. Questions arise regarding the implications of boundary conditions on the eigenvalues and the overlap integral.

Discussion Status

Some participants have offered algebraic insights and suggestions for simplifying the overlap integral using boundary conditions. There is an ongoing exploration of how the boundary conditions influence the integral, with no explicit consensus reached yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the boundary conditions lead to transcendental equations, which complicate the analysis. There is an acknowledgment that the eigenvalues are distinct, which is a key aspect of the orthogonality argument.

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[SOLVED] orthogonal eigenfunctions

From Sturm-Louisville eigenvalue theory we know that eigenfunctions corresponding to different eigenvalues are orthogonal. For example,

\Phi_{xx} + \lambda \Phi = 0

would be of Sturm-Louisville form (note: \Phi_{xx} represents the second derivative of Phi with respect to x)

\frac{d}{dx}[p(x) \frac{d \Phi}{dx}] + (q(x) + \sigma(x) \lambda)\Phi = 0

where q = 0, p = 1, and \sigma = 1. The boundary conditions are

BC1: \Phi(0) = 0

and

BC2: \Phi_x(L) + h \Phi(L,t) = 0

which means that there can be one eigenfunction corresponding to a negative eigenvalue and the rest are sines relating to the positive eigenvalues, specifically that the eigenfunctions would be

\Phi_n(x) = \left\{ {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> {sinh \sqrt{s_1}x} &amp; {n=1} \\<br /> {sin\sqrt{\lambda_n}x} &amp; {n &gt; 1} \\<br /> \end{array}} \right.

Basically all I need to do is show that

\int_0^L sin \sqrt{\lambda_n}x sinh \sqrt{s_1} x dx = 0

with integration by parts I have gotten to the point

\int_0^L sin \sqrt{\lambda_n}x sinh \sqrt{s_1} x dx = \frac{\sqrt{s_e}cosh(\sqrt{s_e}L)sin(L\sqrt{\lambda}) - \sqrt{\lambda_n}cos(\sqrt{\lambda_n}L)sinh(L\sqrt{s_e})}{s_e+\lambda}

and mathematica gives the same thing. I don't see this being zero any time soon. Any suggestions?
 
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I think it is zero. Use the information on lambda and s that you get by imposing the second BC.
 
The second BC gives transcendental equations though.

tan(\sqrt{\lambda}x) = -\sqrt{\lambda}/h

and

tanh(\sqrt{s}L) = -\sqrt{s}/h

which require numerical methods. I'm pretty sure this can be done analytically.
 
You don't have to solve them, you have to USE them to show that your overlap integral is zero.
 
I'm probably going to feel stupid when I finally figure it out, but I still don't really see what to do. The second BC will tell us that the eigenvalues are different, which is why Sturm-Louisville would say that the integral must be zero. Beyond that though, I can't see how it directly influences the integration.
 
I can write your overlap integral as
\frac{\sinh(\sqrt{s_e}L)\sin(\sqrt{\lambda_n}L)}{s_e+\lambda_n}\left[<br /> \sqrt{s_e}\coth(\sqrt{s_e}L) - \sqrt{\lambda_n}\cot(\sqrt{\lambda_n}L)}\right]
Now look at the equations you get from the boundary conditions, and use them to simplify each term in the square brackets ...
 
Last edited:
Shoot dang Avodyne, nice algebra trick and nice foresight. Thanks for the help.
 
You're welcome!
 

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