How to show a function is analytic?

  • Context: Undergrad 
  • Thread starter Thread starter numberthree
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Function
Join the discussion
Ask a follow-up here, or get your own question answered by working scientists, mathematicians and engineers — people, not an autocomplete.
Real named experts · corrections over time · the nuance an AI answer skips
5 replies · 31K views
numberthree
Messages
8
Reaction score
0
how to show a function is analytic??

I know that to show a function is analytic I need to prove its differentiable, but for a fuction like log(z-i), how could i show it is analytic?
 
Physics news on Phys.org


Use the "Cauchy-Riemann equations which should be mentioned early in any book on "functions of a complex variable". A function f(x+ iy)= u(x,y)+ iv(x,y) is analytic at [itex]z_0= x_0+ iy_0[/itex] if and only if the partial derivatives, [itex]\partial u/\partial x[/itex], [itex]\partial u/\partial y[/itex], [itex]\partial v/\partial x[/itex], and [itex]\partial v/\partial y[/itex] are continuous at the point and
[tex]\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}= \frac{\partial v}{\partial y}[/tex]
and
[tex]\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}= -\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}[/tex]
 


yes, i know wat u mean, but i don't know how to separate log(z-i) into u + iv form
 


numberthree said:
I know that to show a function is analytic I need to prove its differentiable, but for a fuction like log(z-i), how could i show it is analytic?

Why not just differentiate it and then show the derivative exists in a region surrounding a point then it is analytic in that region so:

[tex]\frac{d}{dz} \log(z-i)=\frac{1}{z-i}[/tex]

and that derivative exists everywhere except at z=i.
 


Or you could integrate the function over a closed line and show the integral is zero.
 


use log(z) = log(|z|) + i (arg(z))