I don't understand an approximation (Taylor series related?)

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Homework Statement


I've found in a physics book that when u <<L, we have [itex]\sqrt {u^2+L^2} -L = \frac{u^2}{2L}[/itex]. I don't understand why.

Homework Equations


Not sure.

The Attempt at a Solution


I've calculated the Taylor expansion of order 2 of [itex]\sqrt {u^2+L^2} -L[/itex] but I couldn't show the approximation. I get 0, which is "non sense".
If [itex]f(u)=\sqrt {u^2+L^2} -L[/itex], then [itex]f'(u)=\frac{u}{\sqrt {u^2+L^2 }}[/itex] and [itex]f''(u)= \frac{1}{u^2+L^2} \left ( \sqrt {u^2+L^2}- \frac{u^2}{\sqrt {u^2+L^2} } \right )[/itex].
So [itex]f(u)\approx f(0)+f'(0)u+ \frac{f''(0)u^2}{2}[/itex]. All of these terms are approximately worth 0 (the last one) or simply worth 0 (the 2 first).
I'm totally stuck on this.

Edit: Nevermind, I figured it out. The 3rd term (the one that isn't worth 0) is worth precisely [itex]\frac{u^2}{2L}[/itex]. I considered that u^2 was almost worth 0 at first, because in physics when we have a differential squared we consider it as 0... And here u is considered very small so I got confused, but I finally "understand" the solution now.
Thanks for reading tough. Hope that can help someone else in future.
 
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One useful series expansion to know is the binomial series:[tex](1+x)^a = 1+ax+\frac{a(a-1)}{2!}x^2+\frac{a(a-1)(a-2)}{3!}x^3+\cdots[/tex]Using it can save you from having to take annoying derivatives. In this problem, you could have expanded the square root as follows:[tex]\sqrt{u^2+L^2} = L\sqrt{1+\frac{u^2}{L^2}}\approx L\left(1+\frac{1}{2}\frac{u^2}{L^2}\right)[/tex]
 
Just remember

[tex]\sqrt{1+x^2} \approx 1 + {{x^2}\over{2}}[/tex]
[tex]\sqrt{1+x} \approx 1 + {{x}\over{2}}[/tex]

They're used so often in physics you should really be forced to tattoo them on your forearm.

Of course, this is when x<1.

Their inverses are also used a ton.[tex]{{1}\over{\sqrt{1+x}}} \approx 1 - {{x}\over{2}}[/tex]
[tex]{{1}\over{\sqrt{1+x^2}}} \approx 1 - {{x^2}\over{2}}[/tex]