Which p values result in the convergence of the series x_{n}+px_{n-1}?

  • Thread starter Final
  • Start date
In summary, the statement "x_{n}+px_{n-1} converges \Leftrightarrow x_{n} converges" is always true. It is also true that "x_{n} converges \rightarrow x_{n}+px_{n-1} converges" for all values of p except -1.
  • #1
Final
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[tex] x_{n}+px_{n-1} [/tex] converges [tex]\Leftrightarrow x_{n}[/tex] converges.
For which p it is true?

Thanks
Final
 
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  • #2
"Xn converges -> Xn + pXn-1 converges" is always true.
"Xn + pXn-1 converges -> Xn converges" is true if |p| < 1
 
  • #3
Final said:
[tex] x_{n}+px_{n-1} [/tex] converges [tex]\Leftrightarrow x_{n}[/tex] converges.
For which p it is true?

Thanks
Final

I'm guessing there are two series. The first being [tex]x_{n}[/tex] and the second being defined in terms of the first as: [tex]y_{n}=x_{n}+px_{n-1}[/tex]

Assume [tex]x_{n}[/tex] converges. So there exists a finite L such that:
[tex]\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} x_{n} = L[/tex]

To see whether or not [tex]y_{n}[/tex] converges, calculate the limit:
[tex]\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} x_{n} + px_{n-1}[/tex]

[tex]= \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} x_{n} + p \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} x_{n-1}[/tex]

[tex]= L + pL [/tex]

L+pL exists and it is finite for all p, so [tex]y_{n}[/tex] converges.

So we've shown
[tex]x_{n}[/tex] converges [tex]\rightarrow x_{n} + px_{n-1}[/tex] converges for all p.

Assume [tex]y_{n}[/tex] converges. So there is a finite M such that:
[tex]\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} x_{n} + px_{n-1} = M[/tex]

we can rewrite the left side:
[tex]\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} x_{n} + p \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} x_{n-1} = M[/tex]

[tex]\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} x_{n} + p \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} x_{n} = M[/tex]

[tex] (1+p) \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} x_{n} = M[/tex]

[tex] \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} x_{n} = M/(1+p)[/tex]

M/(1+p) exists and is finite for all p not equal to -1.

[tex]x_{n} + px_{n-1} [/tex] converges [tex]\rightarrow x_{n} [/tex] converges for all p not equal -1
 
Last edited:
  • #4
learningphysics said:
...

Assume [tex]y_{n}[/tex] converges. So there is a finite M such that:
[tex]\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} x_{n} + px_{n-1} = M[/tex]

we can rewrite the left side:
[tex]\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} x_{n} + p \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} x_{n-1} = M[/tex]

...

That's only true if x_n converges, which is what you were trying to prove... ;)
 
  • #5
Example where yn series converges and xn does not is as follows: xn =1 for even n and -1 for odd n, for p =1, all yn =0, while the xn series oscillates between 1 and 0 (assuming start with n=0).
 
  • #6
Muzza said:
That's only true if x_n converges, which is what you were trying to prove... ;)

:blushing:

Yes, you're right. All I did was show that if the limit exists then it is M/(p+1) and that the limit does not exist for p=-1. But I did not show where the limit does exist.

Anyway, please ignore my solution... Only look if you want to know how NOT to do calculus!
 
Last edited:
  • #7
It is easy to construct an example for any p, where |p|<=1.
Let xn=(-1/p)n. Then the x series diverges or oscillates, while the y series is always 0.
 

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