I need to show that (C-{0},*)/{x+yi|x^2+y^2=1} is isomorphic to (R+,*)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around demonstrating the isomorphism between the quotient group (ℂ-{0},*)/{x+yi|x²+y²=1} and (ℝ⁺,*). Participants are exploring the properties of group homomorphisms and the structure of the involved groups.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the need to find a suitable homomorphism ϕ from G to U, questioning the conditions under which it is defined and its kernel. There is a suggestion to consider a simpler homomorphism that relates to the unit circle.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of different homomorphism candidates, with some participants suggesting a standard method to associate unit vectors with non-zero vectors. Clarifications about the original problem statement have been raised, indicating some confusion regarding the specific groups being discussed.

Contextual Notes

Participants note discrepancies in the problem title and the actual problem being addressed, leading to confusion about the correct isomorphism to demonstrate.

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1. I need to show that the quotient group G/ℝ+ is isomorphic to U using the Fundamental Theorem on group homomorphisms. I believe I can get there if someone can just help me find what ψ, the homomorphism function is supposed to be.
G=(ℂ-{0},*)
U={x+yi|x^2+y^2=1}

Homework Equations


Fundamental Theorem on group homomorphisms

The Attempt at a Solution


Note that ℝ⁺ is the subset of G where for any (x+yi)∈G, y=0.
First, we need to find a homomorphism ϕ:G→U such that ker(ϕ)=ℝ⁺.
Need to find: a,b such that (x+yi)⋅(a+bi)=(x+yi) given x²+y²=1 and a²+b²=1.
(x+yi)⋅(a+bi)=ax+bxi+ayi-by=(ax-by)+(bx+ay)i=(x+yi)
We also know (ax-by)²+(bx+ay)²=1.
Then (ax-by)=x and (bx+ay)=y.
So, a=1 and b=0, so e_{U}=1+0i.
Therefore, ϕ(x+yi)=1+yi, since only y=0 will give you 1+0i, which is e_{U}, which makes R⁺ be the ker(ϕ).
This ϕ is not onto.
ϕ(x+yi) is a homomorphism since for any a+bi,c+di∈G, ϕ((a+bi)⋅(c+di))=ϕ((ac-bd)+(ad+bc)i)=1+(ad+bc)i≠***(1-bd)+(b+d)i=(1+bi)⋅(1+di)=ϕ(a+bi)⋅ϕ(c+di). ***this is not equal
Then, by Thm 13.2 (Fundamental Theorem on group homomorphisms), ϕ(G)=G/ker(ϕ). So, (1+yi)≅G/R⁺.
****I went wrong somewhere since it's supposed to be U, not (1+yi).
 
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catherinenanc said:
Note that ℝ⁺ is the subset of G where for any (x+yi)∈G, y=0.
and x > 0 I assume. At least if you use standard notation.

First, we need to find a homomorphism ϕ:G→U such that ker(ϕ)=ℝ⁺.
This is the right idea. Then show it is onto (surjective).

Need to find: a,b such that (x+yi)⋅(a+bi)=(x+yi) given x²+y²=1 and a²+b²=1.
(x+yi)⋅(a+bi)=ax+bxi+ayi-by=(ax-by)+(bx+ay)i=(x+yi)
We also know (ax-by)²+(bx+ay)²=1.
Then (ax-by)=x and (bx+ay)=y.
So, a=1 and b=0, so e_{U}=1+0i.
I don't understand why you try to find such a,b. Also since you know \mathbb{C}\setminus\{0\} (or U) is a group it is immediate that the only such a,b is (1,0) since you may just cancel out (x+iy).

Therefore, ϕ(x+yi)=1+yi, since only y=0 will give you 1+0i, which is e_{U}, which makes R⁺ be the ker(ϕ).
This ϕ is not onto.
and it is not a group homomorphism, nor is it a function to U.Try to see if you can think of a simpler way to construct a group homomorphism. Remember that G is the punctured complex plane and U is the unit circle. Do you happen to know a standard way to associate a unit vector to any non-zero vector? Try that for your \varphi.
 
"Try to see if you can think of a simpler way to construct a group homomorphism. Remember that G is the punctured complex plane and U is the unit circle. Do you happen to know a standard way to associate a unit vector to any non-zero vector? Try that for your φ."

Ok, so you're saying that my homomorphism could be ψ(x+yi)=(x+yi)/√(x^2+y^2), right?
I haven't checked that that's a homomorphism, but assuming it is, that would be onto!
 
Sorry, it won't let me use the right symbol, so for now I'm using ψ.
 
That is a good idea. I would however suggest writing
|z| = \sqrt{x^2+y^2}
because then you can use identities like |zw|=|z||w| and your group homomorphism is just z \mapsto z/|z| (this is of course the exact same thing just written in more concise notation).

The reason why we might suspect that it is a homomorphism is that multiplication of complex numbers just adds their angles and multiply their magnitudes. The map you proposed would simply consist of forgetting magnitudes. Of course this is not a formal argument, but it suggests why it should be true.
 
Thank you so much! I'm pretty sure I have it now. You are awesome!
 
i am confused.

the title of the thread says that you need to show that

C*/U ≅ R+ (where multiplication is the group operation for both groups)

which is true, but the proper homomorphism has not been discussed here.

subsequent discussion has focused on trying to show that:

C*/R+ ≅ U which is not quite the same thing.
 
You are correct, sorry. I must have been looking at part a of my homework problem when I wrote the title and part b when I wrote out the problem. I had done part a already, as it was the easier of the two, and thanks to this thread, I got part b as well!
 

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