oblixps
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If \(X\) is a subset of \(G\) such that \(xy = yx\) for all \(x,y\in X\), then \(<X>\) is Abelian.
I'm trying to understand the proof to the above statement in my book. This may be trivial but for some reason I am not seeing it.
It starts with saying X \subset C_{G}(X) by the hypothesis and since C_{G}(X) is a subgroup, we must have <X> \subset C_{G}(X) and so X \subset C_{G}(<X>). Then, just as above we have <X> \subset C_{G}(<X>) and so <X> is abelian as desired.
i didn't understand how the book went from saying <X> \subset C_{G}(X) and concluding that X \subset C_{G}(<X>). it seems to me that X \subset C_{G}(<X>) is clear from the hypothesis and i don't see why it was even needed to show that <X> \subset C_{G}(X).
am i missing something here?
I'm trying to understand the proof to the above statement in my book. This may be trivial but for some reason I am not seeing it.
It starts with saying X \subset C_{G}(X) by the hypothesis and since C_{G}(X) is a subgroup, we must have <X> \subset C_{G}(X) and so X \subset C_{G}(<X>). Then, just as above we have <X> \subset C_{G}(<X>) and so <X> is abelian as desired.
i didn't understand how the book went from saying <X> \subset C_{G}(X) and concluding that X \subset C_{G}(<X>). it seems to me that X \subset C_{G}(<X>) is clear from the hypothesis and i don't see why it was even needed to show that <X> \subset C_{G}(X).
am i missing something here?
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