Integral on domain equals minus integral on the reverse domain?

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SUMMARY

The integral from a to b of a function f(x) is equal to the negative of the integral from b to a of the same function, expressed as ab f(x) dx = -∫ba f(x) dx. This relationship holds true regardless of whether a is less than or greater than b. The negative sign indicates that reversing the limits of integration effectively flips the area under the curve, maintaining the same absolute value but changing the sign. This concept is foundational in calculus, particularly as defined in Apostol's calculus text.

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isalloum4
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Homework Statement



Why integral from a to b of f(x) equals "minus (-)" integral from b to a of f(x)? when a<b or a>b

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The Attempt at a Solution

 
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Is this a homework question or your own question?
 
I am reading Apostol calculus and I couldn't figure out how the above relation got derived!
 
isalloum4 said:
I am reading Apostol calculus and I couldn't figure out how the above relation got derived!

You want this I believe :

##\int_{a}^{b} f(x) dx = - \int_{b}^{a} f(x) dx##

Is it that you're not understanding how to prove it or is it conceptually confusing?
 
Exactly that I meant! It is conceptually confusing ( even though I thought I am good at that) and I don't know where it came from!
Many thanks for help
 
isalloum4 said:
Exactly that I meant! It is conceptually confusing ( even though I thought I am good at that) and I don't know where it came from!
Many thanks for help

Think about this integral :

##\int_{a}^{b} f(x) dx## where you assume ##a≤b##.

In words, it represents the area under the curve when we integrate f(x) from a to b. Right?

Now think about this one :

##- \int_{b}^{a} f(x) dx## now you assume ##a≥b##.

This one will represent the area under the curve when we integrate f(x) from b to a. The negative sign 'flips' the answer around so you will get the same answer as if you integrated from a to b.

I hope that clears that up a bit.

Do you know about Riemann sums at all? The mesh of a partition? Any definitions you have would be great.
 
Thanks for your time! But I still don't understand the geometric representation for this. And, both integrals are related to each other only when a<b for both the positive and the negative.
 
If I remember correctly, Apostol defines the integral \int_a^b f(x)dx through "Riemann sums" only for a< b, the defines \int_b^a f(x)dx= -\int_a^b f(x)dx.
 
Here is a simple way to look at this. When \frac{d}{dx}F(x)=f(x), \int_{a}^{b}f(x)dx=F(b)-F(a). Also, \int_{b}^{a}f(x)dx=F(a)-F(b)=-(F(b)-F(a)). Therefore, \int_{a}^{b}f(x)dx=-\int_{b}^{a}f(x)dx.
 

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