kidsasd987
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http://www.askamathematician.com/20...gralantiderivative-the-area-under-a-function/
this website says
f^\prime (c) (B-A) = f(B)-f(A) or f(c) (B-A) = F(B)-F(A) (since F’ =f).
but seems like this is wrong. because B-A= Δ x,
f'(c)*Δ x= Δy
and the area might be Δx*f(c).
Can anyone give me proof or link that explains this throughly?
this website says
f^\prime (c) (B-A) = f(B)-f(A) or f(c) (B-A) = F(B)-F(A) (since F’ =f).
but seems like this is wrong. because B-A= Δ x,
f'(c)*Δ x= Δy
and the area might be Δx*f(c).
Can anyone give me proof or link that explains this throughly?