Integrate: $\frac{dx}{(R^{2}+x^{2})^{3/2}}$

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the integration of the function $\frac{dx}{(R^{2}+x^{2})^{3/2}}$, which falls under the subject area of calculus, specifically focusing on integration techniques and the properties of definite and indefinite integrals.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore a trigonometric substitution approach to solve the integral, with some questioning the transition from indefinite to definite integrals. Others raise concerns about the limits of integration and the nature of indefinite versus definite integrals.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing insights into the integration process and clarifying the definitions of indefinite and definite integrals. There is a lack of consensus on the handling of limits and the implications of variable substitution.

Contextual Notes

Some participants express confusion regarding the relationship between indefinite integrals and limits approaching infinity, while others clarify that this is not a standard interpretation. The discussion also touches on the concept of improper integrals.

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Homework Statement



\int\frac{dx}{(R^{2}+x^{2})^{3/2}}

Homework Equations




The Attempt at a Solution



<br /> <br /> \mbox{Let }x = R\\tan\theta \Rightarrow dx = R\\sec^{2}d\theta\\<br /> x^{2} = R^{2}\\tan^{2}\theta\\<br /> \Rightarrow R^{2} + x^{2} = R^{2}\\( 1 + tan^{2}\theta)\\<br /> \Rightarrow R^{2} + x^{2} = R^{2}\\sec^{2}\\<br /> \Rightarrow (R^{2} + x^{2})^{3/2} = R^{3}\\sec^{3}\theta\\<br /> \\<br /> Therefore, \int\frac{dx}{(R^{2}+x^{2})^{3/2}}\\<br /> =\int\frac{R\\sec^{2}\theta}{R^{3}\\sec^{3}\theta}\\d\theta\\<br /> =\frac{1}{R^{2}}\\ \int^{\infty}_{-\infty}cos\theta\\ d\theta\\<br /> =\frac{1}{R^{2}}\stackrel{lim}{n\rightarrow\infty} \int^{N}_{-N}cos\theta\\ d\theta\\<br /> =\frac{1}{R^{2}}\stackrel{lim}{n\rightarrow\infty}(sin\theta)\mid^{N}_{-N}\\<br /> =\frac{1}{R^{2}}\stackrel{lim}{n\rightarrow\infty}(sin N + sin N)<br /> =\frac{2}{R}\stackrel{lim}{n\rightarrow\infty}sin N<br />

and then?
 
Last edited:
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Homework Statement



\int\frac{dx}{(R^{2}+x^{2})^{3/2}}

Homework Equations




The Attempt at a Solution



\mbox{Let }x = R\\tan\theta \Rightarrow dx = R\\sec^{2}d\theta

x^{2} = R^{2}\\tan^{2}\theta

\Rightarrow R^{2} + x^{2} = R^{2}\\( 1 + tan^{2}\theta)

\Rightarrow R^{2} + x^{2} = R^{2}\\sec^{2}\theta

\Rightarrow (R^{2} + x^{2})^{3/2} = R^{3}\\sec^{3}\theta

\mbox{Therefore, }\int\frac{dx}{(R^{2}+x^{2})^{3/2}}

=\int\frac{R\\sec^{2}\theta}{R^{3}\\sec^{3}\theta}\\d\theta

=\frac{1}{R^{2}}\\ \int^{\infty}_{-\infty}cos\theta\\ d\theta

=\frac{1}{R^{2}}\stackrel{lim}{n\rightarrow\infty} \int^{N}_{-N}cos\theta\\ d\theta

=\frac{1}{R^{2}}\stackrel{lim}{n\rightarrow\infty}(sin\theta)\mid^{N}_{-N}

=\frac{1}{R^{2}}\stackrel{lim}{n\rightarrow\infty}(sin N + sin N)

=\frac{2}{R^{2}}\stackrel{lim}{n\rightarrow\infty}sin N

and then?
 
Why did you suddenly switch from indefinite to definite (across the entire real axis, no less) integrals partway through? I would assume that you continue to use the indefinite integral.
 
Fixed your LaTex.
\begin{align*}<br /> \int \frac{dx}{(R^2+x^2)^{3/2}} &amp; = \int\frac{R\sec^2\theta}{R^3\sec^3\theta} d\theta \\<br /> &amp; = \frac{1}{R^2} \int^{\infty}_{-\infty}\cos\theta\,d\theta \\<br /> &amp; = \frac{1}{R^2} \lim_{N \to \infty} \int^N_{-N}\cos\theta\,d\theta \\<br /> &amp; = \frac{1}{R^2} \lim_{N \to \infty} (\sin\theta)\mid^N_{-N} \\<br /> &amp; = \frac{1}{R^2} \lim_{N \to \infty} (\sin N + \sin N) \\<br /> &amp; = \frac{2}{R^2} \lim_{N \to \infty} \sin N<br /> \end{align*}
You need to change the limits of the integral when you change variables.
 
I thought that an indefinite integral is just a definite integral with limits that are infinity.
Isn't that true?
 
hasan_researc said:
I thought that an indefinite integral is just a definite integral with limits that are infinity.
Isn't that true?
Nope, that is unfortunately not true at all.
 
But \theta from \infty to -\infty is the same as x from \infty to -\infty. Isn't it?
 
What is an indefinite integral, then?
 
\lim_{\theta\to\infty}{\tan(\theta)} doesn't exist. You have a better chance reversing the substitution before taking the limits.
 
  • #10
An indefinite integral simply produces the antiderivative of the function being integrated.
\int f(x) dx = F(x) + c
where differentiating F(x) yields the function f(x).

Meanwhile, a definite integral of a function over a specified interval is equal to the difference between the values of the antiderivative at the endpoints of the interval.
\int_{a}^{b}f(x) dx = F(b) - F(a)

One can view the antiderivative as the basis with which we employ the fundamental theorem of calculus to compute definite integrals.
 
  • #11
hasan_researc said:
I thought that an indefinite integral is just a definite integral with limits that are infinity.
Isn't that true?
As already noted, that's not true. You might be thinking of an improper integral.
 

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