- #1
peripatein
- 880
- 0
Hi,
I am asked to show that P[x0,x1,...,xn] = 0 for P(x) [itex]\in[/itex]∏n-1 without directly using the property that the divided difference
over n+1 nodes is the nth derivative. The hint says to use the formula for the error.
I am not quite sure how to approach this. I am familiar with the expression for the error. I am also familiar with Rolle's Theorem, or Mean Value Theorem, but am I allowed/supposed to use that based on the indications in the question?
I'd appreciate some guidance. Thanks!
Homework Statement
I am asked to show that P[x0,x1,...,xn] = 0 for P(x) [itex]\in[/itex]∏n-1 without directly using the property that the divided difference
over n+1 nodes is the nth derivative. The hint says to use the formula for the error.
Homework Equations
The Attempt at a Solution
I am not quite sure how to approach this. I am familiar with the expression for the error. I am also familiar with Rolle's Theorem, or Mean Value Theorem, but am I allowed/supposed to use that based on the indications in the question?
I'd appreciate some guidance. Thanks!