Interpreting a double integral as volume

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The function F(x,y) = 4x^2y^3 is evaluated over the disk defined by x^2 + y^2 = 1, leading to the conclusion that the double integral is zero. This is attributed to the odd nature of the function with respect to the y variable, which causes the areas to cancel out when integrated over symmetric limits. The even nature of the function concerning the x variable does not affect this outcome, as it only contributes to symmetry along the x-axis. The integral calculation confirms that integrating y^3 from -1 to 1 results in zero, validating that the overall double integral is indeed zero. Thus, the interpretation of the double integral as volume in this case results in a volume of zero.
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The function F(x,y) = 4x^2y^3 over the disk x^2 + y^2 =1 is supposed to be zero over the disk. I'm wondering how you can see it?

I cannot see this or imagine it in 3D. Is it because the function is odd in terms of y?

F(x,-y) = -F(x,y) ? independent of wheher x is positive or negative?

Because functions like G(x,y) = y^3 is obviously odd and so the double integral would be zero over the same disk, but I have an extra x^2 term. How is one supposed to think this?
 
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The fact that it's even with respect to the x variable just means that it is symetrical about x = 0 along any line parallel to the x-axis, but it is odd with respect to the y variable so the canceling out of the area occurs along the y direction only...
 
BackEMF said:
The fact that it's even with respect to the x variable just means that it is symetrical about x = 0 along any line parallel to the x-axis, but it is odd with respect to the y variable so the canceling out of the area occurs along the y direction only...

So the integral (volume) is not zero?
 
It is zero. Have you calculated double integrals yet? If you integrate over any line parallel to the y-axis using symmetric limits, so x stays constant, you see that the integral is zero:

\int_{-1}^{1}4x^2 y^3 dy
(Note that x is treated as a constant here, since it doesn't vary along a line parallel to the y-axis)

4x^2\int_{-1}^{1}y^3 dy

4x^2 \left[y^4/4\right]_{-1}^{1}

4x^2 [1/4-1/4] = 4x^2 . 0 = 0

i.e. once the function is odd with respect to one variable that is enough for the whole thing to be zero (once your limits symmetric) because once that intergral is zero, the whole double integral (or triple integral or whatever) must be zero. Does this makes sense?
 
BackEMF said:
It is zero. Have you calculated double integrals yet? If you integrate over any line parallel to the y-axis using symmetric limits, so x stays constant, you see that the integral is zero:

\int_{-1}^{1}4x^2 y^3 dy
(Note that x is treated as a constant here, since it doesn't vary along a line parallel to the y-axis)

4x^2\int_{-1}^{1}y^3 dy

4x^2 \left[y^4/4\right]_{-1}^{1}

4x^2 [1/4-1/4] = 4x^2 . 0 = 0

i.e. once the function is odd with respect to one variable that is enough for the whole thing to be zero (once your limits symmetric) because once that intergral is zero, the whole double integral (or triple integral or whatever) must be zero. Does this makes sense?

Yup. thx
 

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