Is there any good physical or graphical intuition for why ##\frac{d \langle p \rangle}{dt} = -\frac{\partial V(\langle x \rangle)}{\partial x}##? Classically this is apparently true.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Thanks.

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# I Intuition for why d<p>/dt = -dV(<x>)/dx

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