Why is x^2 not bijective when defined with a domain including 0?

In summary, a function must be bijective in order to have an inverse. However, it is possible for a function to be locally bijective and have an inverse only within a finite interval. For example, the function x^{2} is not bijective in any interval containing x=0, but if the domain is restricted to x>0, then the inverse exists as f(x)=\sqrt{x} and in x<0, the inverse is f(x)=-\sqrt{x}. Additionally, for x^2 to be bijective, the domain must be strictly increasing, such as on [0, infinity).
  • #1
hangover
14
0
If a function is bijective, then its inverse exists. Is there any example that inverse of a function exists but the original function is not bijective?
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org
  • #2
A function has to be bijective in order to have an inverse.
 
  • #3
A function can be locally bijective, so it's inverse exists only in some finite interval.

For example [tex]x^{2}[/tex] is not a bijective in any interval containing x=0 (since f'(0)=0) but if you restrict yourself to x>0, then you off course have the inverse
[tex]f(x)=\sqrt{x}[/tex] or in x<0 the inverse is [tex]f(x)=-\sqrt{x}[/tex].
 
Last edited:
  • #4
Another example. f(x)= ex, as a function from R to R, is not surjective, so not and does not have an inverse. In particular, there is no f-1(-1). But if I consider it as a function from R to R+, the positive real numbers, then it is bijective and f-1(x)= ln(x).

A function, from A to B, has an inverse if and only if it is bijective.
 
  • #5
Thanks a lot! It may be a typo in my textbook.

elibj123 said:
A function can be locally bijective, so it's inverse exists only in some finite interval.

For example [tex]x^{2}[/tex] is not a bijective in any interval containing x=0 (since f'(0)=0) but if you restrict yourself to x>0, then you off course have the inverse
[tex]f(x)=\sqrt{x}[/tex] or in x<0 the inverse is [tex]f(x)=-\sqrt{-x}[/tex].

However, why is x^2 not bijective if we define the domain containing zero(like x=>0)? It is a continuous function so isn't it bijective at this interval though being not strictly increasing? Thanks
 
  • #6
f(x) = x2 on [0, infinity) is strictly increasing. If a and b are any two numbers in this interval such that a < b, then f(a) < f(b).
 
  • #7
hangover said:
Thanks a lot! It may be a typo in my textbook.
However, why is x^2 not bijective if we define the domain containing zero(like x=>0)? It is a continuous function so isn't it bijective at this interval though being not strictly increasing? Thanks
I had a little confusion in defining the inverse sorry.

For [tex]x\geq 0[/tex] the inverse of [tex]y=x^{2}[/tex] is [tex]x=f^{-1}(y)=\sqrt{y}[/tex]For [tex]x\leq 0[/tex] the inverse of [tex]y=x^{2}[/tex] is [tex]x=f^{-1}(y)=-\sqrt{y}[/tex]

Notice of course that the inverse is defined only over [tex]y\geq 0[/tex], since the range of x^2 is only the non-negative real numbers.

Also, the interval where the function can be define as a bijection may inclue x=0, but only as a boundary point.
 
Last edited:

Related to Why is x^2 not bijective when defined with a domain including 0?

What is the inverse of a function?

The inverse of a function is a function that "undoes" the original function. It is obtained by switching the input and output values of the original function. For example, if the original function is f(x) = x^2, the inverse function would be f^-1(x) = √x.

How do you find the inverse of a function?

To find the inverse of a function, you can follow the steps of "switching" the input and output values. This can also be done algebraically by solving for the input variable in terms of the output variable. For example, if the original function is f(x) = 2x + 3, the inverse function would be f^-1(x) = (x-3)/2.

What is the domain and range of the inverse of a function?

The domain of the inverse function is equal to the range of the original function, and the range of the inverse function is equal to the domain of the original function. In other words, the input and output values are switched between the original function and its inverse.

Is every function guaranteed to have an inverse?

No, not every function has an inverse. In order for a function to have an inverse, it must be a one-to-one function, meaning that each input has a unique output and vice versa. If a function is not one-to-one, it does not have an inverse.

What is the notation used for inverse functions?

The notation used for inverse functions is f^-1(x), where f represents the original function and x is the input variable. This notation is read as "f inverse of x." It is important to note that this does not mean 1/f(x), which would indicate the reciprocal of the function.

Similar threads

Replies
17
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
698
Replies
15
Views
2K
  • Differential Equations
Replies
1
Views
704
Replies
16
Views
1K
Replies
6
Views
991
Replies
7
Views
995
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • General Math
Replies
4
Views
2K
Replies
13
Views
1K
Back
Top